The kinetic energy of the object at the launching point is 1600 J. Thus, the maximum height attained by the object is 40 m. Therefore, the acceleration produced is 3.464 m/s².
The given values are, Initial Velocity of the object, u = 40 m/s Angle of projection, θ = 30° Mass of the object, m = 2 kg
Let's find the solution to each of the given parts.
i. Kinetic Energy of the object: At the launching point, KE = 1/2mu² = 1/2×2×40² = 1600 J
Thus, the kinetic energy of the object at the launching point is 1600 J.
ii. Maximum height attained by the object: We know that the vertical displacement, y = (u² sin²θ)/2g
Maximum height of the object is given by, ymax = y = (u² sin²θ)/2g = (40² sin²30°)/2 × 9.8 = 40 m
Thus, the maximum height attained by the object is 40 m.
iii. Velocity of the object at 12 m above the ground: Let's use the equation of motion, v² = u² + 2ghHere, h = 12 m, u = 40sinθ = 20 m/s, and g = 9.8 m/s²v² = (20)² + 2×9.8×12v² = 400 + 235.2v = √635.2v = 25.2 m/s
Thus, the velocity of the object when it is 12 m above the ground is 25.2 m/s.2. The given values are, Power of the pump, P = 2.5 kW Mass of water vapour, m = 3 × 10⁷ kg Let the height of the cloud be h.
Now, we know that the work done is given by,W = mgh
For a unit mass, work done is the product of weight and distance. That is,W = Fd Work done by the pump to lift a unit mass by height h is P × t Where t is the time taken to lift the unit mass by height h.Work done by the pump = mgh P × t = mgh
Therefore, t = mgh/P = (3 × 10⁷ × 9.8 × h)/(2.5 × 10³) = 11.76h hours
Thus, it will take 11.76h hours to lift the given amount of water vapour from the earth’s surface to the cloud's position.
3. In Figure 1, we can resolve forces into their horizontal and vertical components as shown below:F1 and F2 are in the opposite direction and both have the same magnitude.
Therefore,F1 = F2 = 10 N
The vertical component of F1 and F2 is given as:∑Fy = F2 sin60° - F1 sin60° = 10 × sin60° = 8.66 N
The horizontal component of F1 and F2 is given as:∑Fx = F1 + F2 cos60° = 10 + 10 × cos60° = 15 N
Thus, the net force acting on the object is Fnet = √(∑Fx² + ∑Fy²)F net = √(15² + 8.66²) = 17.32 N
We know that, Force = Mass × Acceleration
Thus, the acceleration produced is :a = F net/m = 17.32/5 = 3.464 m/s²
Therefore, the acceleration produced is 3.464 m/s².
Learn more about Initial Velocity here:
https://brainly.com/question/28395671
#SPJ11
A wire has a resistance of 17.2Ω. It is melted down, and from the same volume of metal a new wire is made that is 2 times longer than the original wire. What is the resistance of the new wire? Number Units
A wire has a resistance of 17.2Ω. It is melted down, and from the same volume of metal a new wire is made that is 2 times longer than the original wire. the resistance of the new wire is 34.4 Ω.
The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area. Given that the volume of metal used remains the same, we can assume that the cross-sectional area of the new wire is the same as that of the original wire.
Let's denote the length of the original wire as L and its resistance as R. The length of the new wire is 2L, and we need to find its resistance, which we can denote as R'.
The resistance of a wire is given by the formula:
R = (ρ * L) / A,
where ρ is the resistivity of the material, L is the length of the wire, and A is the cross-sectional area.
Since the cross-sectional area is the same for both wires, we can write:
R' =(ρ * 2L) / A.
To find the relationship between R and R', we can divide the equation for R' by the equation for R:
R' / R = (ρ * 2L) / A * (A / (ρ * L)).
Simplifying the expression, we get:
R' / R = 2.
Therefore, the resistance of the new wire is twice the resistance of the original wire.
Applying this to the given resistance of the original wire (17.2 Ω), the resistance of the new wire is:
R' = 2 * 17.2 Ω = 34.4 Ω.
Hence, the resistance of the new wire is 34.4 Ω.
Learn more about resistance here:
https://brainly.com/question/17010736
#SPJ11
Einstein's relation between the displacement Δx of a Brownian particle and the observed time interval Δt. (2) Einstein-Stokes equation for the diffusion coefficient. Explain the derivation process of each of all of them. In the answer emphasize what is the hypothesis (or assumption) and what is the result..
Einstein's relation states that the mean squared displacement of a Brownian particle is proportional to time.
The displacement Δx of a Brownian particle and the observed time interval Δt can be related by Einstein's relation, which states that the mean squared displacement is proportional to time: ⟨Δx²⟩ = 2Dt, where D is the diffusion coefficient.The derivation process of Einstein's relation:Assuming a particle undergoes random motion in a fluid, the equation of motion for the particle can be written as:F = maHere, F is the frictional force and a is the acceleration of the particle.
Since the acceleration of a Brownian particle is random, the mean value of a is zero. The frictional force, F, can be assumed to be proportional to the particle's velocity: F = -ζv, where ζ is the friction coefficient.Using the above equations, the equation of motion can be rewritten as:mv = -ζv + ξ, where ξ is the random force acting on the particle.The average of this equation of motion gives:⟨mv⟩ = -⟨ζv⟩ + ⟨ξ⟩
The left-hand side of this equation is zero, since the average velocity of the particle is zero. The average of the product of two random variables is zero. Therefore, the second term on the right-hand side of this equation is also zero. Thus, we have:0 = -⟨ζv⟩.
The frictional force can be related to the diffusion coefficient using the Einstein-Stokes equation: D = kBT/ζHere, kBT is the thermal energy, and ζ is the friction coefficient.The result of the above equation is:Δx² = 2DtTherefore, Einstein's relation states that the mean squared displacement of a Brownian particle is proportional to time.
Learn more about Brownian particle here:
https://brainly.com/question/15540555
#SPJ11
A Bourden pressure gauge having a linear calibration which has a 50 mm long pointer. It moves over a circular dial having an arc of 270. It displays a pressure range of 0 to 15 bar. Determine the sensitivity of the Bourden gauge in terms of scale length per bar (i.e. mm/bar)
Therefore, the sensitivity of the Bourden gauge in terms of scale length per bar (i.e., mm/bar) is 1.6 mm/bar.
The sensitivity of a bourdon gauge in terms of scale length per bar is the rate of change of the bourdon gauge's reading for a unit change in the applied pressure. The formula to calculate the sensitivity of bourdon gauge is:Sensitivity = Total length of scale / Pressure range Sensitivity = (270/360) × π × D / PWhere D = diameter of the dial and P = Pressure rangeThe diameter of the circular dial can be calculated as follows:D = Length of pointer + Length of pivot + 2 × OverrunD = 50 + 10 + 2 × 5D = 70 mmThe pressure range of the gauge is given as 0 to 15 bar. Thus, P = 15 bar.Substituting these values in the above formula, we get: Sensitivity = (270/360) × π × 70 / 15Sensitivity = 1.6 mm/bar. Therefore, the sensitivity of the Bourden gauge in terms of scale length per bar (i.e., mm/bar) is 1.6 mm/bar.
To know more about pressure gauge visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31540347
#SPJ11
A 17-cm-diameter circular loop of wire is placed in a 0.86-T magnetic field When the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the field ines, what is the magnetic flux through the loop? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. H Фа Value Units Submit Request Answer Part B The plane of the loop is rotated until it makes a 40 angle with the field lines. What is the angle in the equation 4 - BAcoso for this situation? Express your answer using two significant figures. Request Answer Part B A 17-cm-diameter circular loop of wire is placed in 0.86-T magnetic field The plane of the loop is rotated until it makes a 40"angle with the field lines. What is the angle in the equation = BA cos for this situation? Express your answer using two significant figures.
When plane circular loop wire is perpendicular magnetic field, magnetic flux through loop can be calculated using Φ = B * A. The angle in eq Φ = B * A * cos(θ) represents angle between the magnetic field lines and normal to loop.
In the first scenario where the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines, we can calculate the magnetic flux through the loop using the formula Φ = B * A. The diameter of the loop is 17 cm, which corresponds to a radius of 8.5 cm or 0.085 m. The area of the loop can be calculated as A = π * r^2, where r is the radius. Substituting the values, we get A = π * (0.085 m)^2. The given magnetic field is 0.86 T. Plugging in the values, the magnetic flux Φ is equal to (0.86 T) multiplied by the area of the loop.
In the second scenario, the plane of the loop is rotated until it makes a 40° angle with the magnetic field lines. In the equation Φ = B * A * cos(θ), θ represents the angle between the magnetic field lines and the normal to the loop. Therefore, the given angle of 40° can be substituted into the equation to determine the contribution of the angle to the magnetic flux.
Learn more about plane here;
https://brainly.com/question/26262923
#SPJ11
Does the induced voltage, V im
, in a coil of wire depend upon the resistance of the wire used to make the coil? Does the amount of induced current flow through the coil depend upon the resistance of the wire used to make the coil? Explain your answers. Suppose you have a wire loop that must be placed in an area where there is magnetic field that is constantly changing in magnitude, but you do not want an induced V ind
in the coil., How would you place the coil in relation to the magnetic field to assure there was no induced (V in
) in the coil?
If the magnetic flux through the coil is kept constant, no voltage will be induced in the coil regardless of the resistance of the wire used to make the coil.
Yes, the induced voltage, Vim, in a coil of wire depends on the resistance of the wire used to make the coil.
The amount of induced current flow through the coil also depends on the resistance of the wire used to make the coil. This is because the greater the resistance of the wire, the greater the amount of voltage needed to create a current of the same strength.
A wire loop can be placed in an area where there is a constantly changing magnetic field in magnitude, but with no induced Vind, by placing it in such a way that the magnetic flux passing through the coil is minimized. One way to do this is to place the coil at a right angle to the direction of the magnetic field.
Another way is to move the coil outside the area of changing magnetic field.
However, if the magnetic flux through the coil is kept constant, no voltage will be induced in the coil regardless of the resistance of the wire used to make the coil.
To learn about magnetic fields here:
https://brainly.com/question/14411049
#SPJ11
Which of the following statements are IMPOSSIBLE? Choose all that apply.
L
The rocket's speed was measured to be 0.7c.
U The rocket's rest length is 580 m. An observer flying by measured the rocket to be 124 m long.
A rocket flying away from the Sun at 0.45c measured the speed of the photons (particles of light) emitted by the Sun to be c.
U An inertial reference frame had an acceleration of 1 m/s?.
U The proper time interval between two events was measured to be 294 s. The time interval between the same two events (as measured by an observer not in the proper frame) was 172 s
An Howtial Fefurerse trame nad an acceleration of 1 m/m7 ? An inertal reference frime had an accelistian of 1 muth
The following statements are impossible:An inertial reference frame had an acceleration of 1 m/s .
2.U An inertial reference frame had an acceleration of 1 m/s?.
How do you define Special Theory of Relativity?
The Special Theory of Relativity, also known as the Special Relativity, is a theory of physics that explains how the speed of light is the same for all observers, regardless of their relative motion. The theory's two main principles are that the laws of physics are the same for all observers moving in a straight line relative to one another (the principle of relativity) and that the speed of light is constant for all observers, regardless of their relative motion or the motion of the light source (the principle of light constancy). Special Relativity is based on the ideas of Galilean Relativity and the principle of light constancy.
What is the significance of Special Theory of Relativity?
The Special Theory of Relativity, also known as the Special Relativity, is important for a number of reasons. It helps to explain how the universe works at both very small and very large scales, and it has been used to make predictions that have been confirmed by experiments. Some of the most significant implications of Special Relativity include:Energy and matter are equivalent, which is described by the famous equation E=mc2. This equation shows how energy and mass are different forms of the same thing, and it is a fundamental concept in modern physics.
The speed of light is the same for all observers, regardless of their relative motion. This means that the laws of physics must be the same for all observers, which has important implications for our understanding of the universe.
Learn more about motion here,
https://brainly.com/question/26083484
#SPJ11
Which of the following is not a unit of mass? A) gram B) kilogram C) milligram D) Newton
The unit of mass is not Newton (D). The correct answer is D) Newton.
The Newton (N) is a unit of force, not mass. It is named after Sir Isaac Newton and is used to measure the amount of force required to accelerate a mass. The gram (g), kilogram (kg), and milligram (mg) are all units of mass. The gram is a metric unit commonly used for small masses, the kilogram is the base unit of mass in the International System of Units (SI), and the milligram is a smaller unit equal to one-thousandth of a gram. In physics, mass is a fundamental property of matter and is measured in units such as grams and kilograms. The Newton, on the other hand, is a unit of force that represents the force required to accelerate a one-kilogram mass by one meter per second squared according to Newton's second law of motion.
Learn more about force here:
https://brainly.com/question/30507236
#SPJ11
If 200 m away from an ambulance siren the sound intensity level is 65 dB, what is the sound intensity level 20 m away from that ambulance siren? Specify your answer in units of decibel (dB). \begin{tabular}{|llllll} \hline A: 75 & B: 80 & C: 85 & D: 90 & E: 95
The sound intensity level at 20 m from the ambulance siren is:x = 2.5 dB
The given problem states that the sound intensity level at a distance of 200 m from an ambulance siren is 65 dB and we need to calculate the sound intensity level at 20 m from the siren. Let us assume that the sound intensity level at a distance of 20 m from the siren be x dB.
Now we know that the sound intensity level at any point is given by the following formula: IL = 10log(I/I0), where I is the sound intensity and I0 is the threshold of hearing, which is equal to 10^-12 W/m^2.
So the sound intensity level 200 m away from the ambulance siren, which is 65 dB, can be written as:
65 = 10log(I/10^-12)
65/10 = log(I/10^-12)
6.5 = log(I/10^-12)I/10^-12 = antilog(6.5)I/10^-12 = 3.162 * 10^-7 W/m^2
Similarly, the sound intensity level at a distance of 20 m from the ambulance siren, which is x dB, can be written as:x = 10log(I/10^-12)x/10 = log(I/10^-12)x/10 = log(I) - log(10^-12)x/10 = log(I) + 12/10x/10 - 12 = log(I)I/10^-12 = antilog(x/10 - 12)I/10^-12 = 10^(x/10) * 10^-12 W/m^2
Since the sound intensity level remains constant, the sound intensity at a distance of 200 m and 20 m is the same. Therefore, equating the above two expressions, we get:3.162 * 10^-7 = 10^(x/10) * 10^-12 3.162 = 10^(x/10)10^(x/10) = 3.162
Taking the logarithm of both sides, we get:x/10 = log(3.162)x/10 = 0.5x = 5log(3.162)x = 5 * 0.5x = 2.5
Therefore, the sound intensity level at 20 m from the ambulance siren is:x = 2.5 dB
Sound intensity level at 20 m from the ambulance siren is 2.5 dB.
Answer: 2.5 dB
Know more about sound intensity here,
https://brainly.com/question/32194259
#SPJ11
Two blocks made of different materials, connected by a thin cord, slide down a plane ramp inclined at an angle θθ to the horizontal, (Figure 1). The masses of the blocks are mAmA = mBmB = 7.9 kgkg , and the coefficients of friction are μAμAmu_A = 0.15 and μBμBmu_B = 0.37, the angle θθ = 32∘
Find the friction force impeding its motion
Therefore, the friction force impeding its motion is approximately 20.49 N.
We have a system of two masses connected by a string that is sliding down an inclined plane. The angle of inclination of the plane is θθ. Both the blocks have the same mass (mA=mB=7.9 kg) and different coefficients of friction. The coefficient of friction of block A is μA=0.15 and the coefficient of friction of block B is μB=0.37. We need to find the friction force impeding its motion.
Let's take the direction of motion as the positive x-axis. Let F be the force acting on the system in the direction of motion and fA and fB be the forces of friction on block A and B respectively. Also, let the acceleration of the system be a. By applying Newton's second law to the system,
we haveF - fA - fB = (mA + mB)a.........(1)Since both blocks have the same mass, their frictional forces will also be equal. Hence, fA = μA(mA + mB)ga......(2)fB = μB(mA + mB)ga.......(3)Substituting equations (2) and (3) in equation (1), we haveF - (μA + μB)(mA + mB)ga = (mA + mB)aSimplifying the above equation, we getF = (mA + mB)g(μB - μA)sinθ= (7.9 + 7.9) x 9.8 x (0.37 - 0.15) x sin 32°≈ 20.49 N
Therefore, the friction force impeding its motion is approximately 20.49 N.
to know more about motion
https://brainly.com/question/28204681
#SPJ11
The friction force impeding its motion is 25.01 N.
Given data Mass of block A, mA = 7.9 kg Mass of block B, mB = 7.9 kg Coefficient of friction of block A, μA = 0.15Coefficient of friction of block B, μB = 0.37
Angle of the incline, θ = 32 degrees As there are two blocks, it will have two friction forces; one for each block. Hence,Friction force of block A, FA = μA
Normal force on block A, NA = mA g cos θ
Normal force on block A, NB = mB g cos θ Friction force of block B, FB = μB
Normal force on block B, NB = mB g cos θWe know,mg sin θ = ma + mgsinθ = mAa(1)mg sin θ = mb + mgsinθ = mBa(2) The acceleration will be the same for both blocks, hence: a=gsinθ−μcosθgcosθ+μsinθ=9.8sin32−0.15cos32gcos32+0.15sin32=1.89m/s2
Friction force of block A will be:NA = mA g cos θNA = 7.9 * 9.8 * cos(32)NA = 67.6 NFA = μA * NAFB = μB * NBNB = mB g cos θNB = 7.9 * 9.8 * cos(32)NB = 67.6 NFB = μB * NB
The friction force impeding its motion is 25.01 N. The expression is shown below:FB = μB * NBFB = 0.37 * 67.6FB = 25.01 N
Thus, the friction force impeding its motion is 25.01 N.
Know more about friction here,
https://brainly.com/question/28356847
#SPJ11
In order to derive the Lorentz transformations, we can start with the thought experiment of a sphere of light expanding from the origin in two frames of reference S and S'. At time t = 0 the origins of the two reference frames are coincident, as S' moves at a velocity of v m/s to the right relative to frame S. At the moment when the two origins are coincident, a flash of light is emitted. (a) Show that the radius of the sphere of light after time t in the S reference frame is r=ct (1) [1] (b) Show that the radius of the sphere of light after time t' in the S' reference frame is r' = ct' (2) [1] (c) Explain why Equation 2 contains c and not c. [2] (d) Show that it must be true that x² + y² +2²c²t² = 0 (3) x2 + y² +22-²4/² = 0 (4) [2] (e) Using the Galilean transformations, show that Equation 3 does not transform into Equa- tion 4. (f) Now show that, using the Lorentz transformations, Equation 3 does transform into Equation 4. This shows that the Lorentz transformations are the correct transformations to translate from one reference frame to the other. (g) Show that, in the case where v << c, the Lorentz transformations reduce to the Galilean transformations. [4] In order to derive the Lorentz transformations, we can start with the thought experiment of a sphere of light expanding from the origin in two frames of reference S and S'. At time t = 0 the origins of the two reference frames are coincident, as S' moves at a velocity of v m/s to the right relative to frame S. At the moment when the two origins are coincident, a flash of light is emitted. (a) Show that the radius of the sphere of light after time t in the S reference frame is r = ct (1) (b) Show that the radius of the sphere of light after time t' in the S' reference frame is r' = ct' (2) (c) Explain why Equation 2 contains c and not c'. (d) Show that it must be true that x² + y² +²-c²1² = 0 (3) x² + y² +2²-2²²² = 0 (4) [2] (e) Using the Galilean transformations, show that Equation 3 does not transform into Equa- tion 4. [4] (f) Now show that, using the Lorentz transformations, Equation 3 does transform into Equation 4. This shows that the Lorentz transformations are the correct transformations to translate from one reference frame to the other. [6] (g) Show that, in the case where v << c, the Lorentz transformations reduce to the Galilean transformations.
The derivation of the Lorentz transformations begins with a thought experiment involving a sphere of light expanding from the origin in two frames of reference, S and S'. By considering the radii of the light sphere in each frame.
It is shown that the Lorentz transformations correctly relate the coordinates between the two frames, while the Galilean transformations fail to do so. This demonstrates the validity of the Lorentz transformations in translating between reference frames, especially in situations involving relativistic speeds.
The derivation starts by considering the expansion of a sphere of light in the S reference frame, where the radius of the sphere after time t is shown to be r = ct. Similarly, in the S' reference frame moving with velocity v relative to S, the radius of the light sphere after time t' is given by r' = ct'. Equation 2 contains c and not c' because the speed of light, c, is constant and is the same in all inertial reference frames.
To demonstrate the correctness of the Lorentz transformations, it is shown that x² + y² + z² - c²t² = 0 in Equation 3, which represents the spacetime interval. In the Galilean transformations, this equation does not transform into Equation 4, indicating a discrepancy between the transformations. However, when the Lorentz transformations are used, Equation 3 transforms into Equation 4, confirming the consistency and correctness of the Lorentz transformations.
Finally, it is shown that in the case where the relative velocity v is much smaller than the speed of light c, the Lorentz transformations reduce to the Galilean transformations. This is consistent with our everyday experiences where the effects of relativity are negligible at low velocities compared to the speed of light.
In conclusion, the derivation of the Lorentz transformations using the thought experiment of a light sphere expansion demonstrates their validity in accurately relating coordinates between different reference frames, especially in situations involving relativistic speeds. The failure of the Galilean transformations in this derivation emphasizes the need for the Lorentz transformations to properly account for the effects of special relativity.
Learn more about Lorentz transformations here:
https://brainly.com/question/30784090
#SPJ11
A 2.00-nF capacitor with an initial charge of 5.81 μC is discharged through a 1.50-km resistor. dQ (a) Calculate the current in the resistor 9.00 us after the resistor is connected across the terminals of the capacitor. (Let the positive direction of the current be define such that > 0.) dt mA (b) What charge remains on the capacitor after 8.00 µs? μC (c) What is the (magnitude of the) maximum current in the resistor?
(a) The current in the resistor 9.00 µs after it is connected across the capacitor is 472 mA. (b) The charge remaining on the capacitor after 8.00 µs is 1.35 μC. (c) The magnitude of the maximum current in the resistor is 1.94 A.
(a) To calculate the current in the resistor 9.00 µs after it is connected across the terminals of the capacitor, we can use the equation for the discharge of a capacitor through a resistor:
I(t) = I0 * exp(-t / RC)
where I(t) is the current at time t, I0 is the initial current (equal to the initial charge divided by the initial time constant), t is the time, R is the resistance, and C is the capacitance.
Given:
C = 2.00 nF = 2.00 * 10^(-9) F
Q0 = 5.81 μC = 5.81 * 10^(-6) C
R = 1.50 km = 1.50 * 10^(3) Ω
First, we need to calculate the initial time constant (τ) using the formula: τ = RC.
τ = (1.50 * 10^(3) Ω) * (2.00 * 10^(-9) F) = 3.00 * 10^(-6) s
Then, we can calculate the initial current (I0): I0 = Q0 / τ = (5.81 * 10^(-6) C) / (3.00 * 10^(-6) s) = 1.94 A
Finally, plugging in the values, we can calculate the current at 9.00 µs (9.00 * 10^(-6) s):
I(9.00 * 10^(-6) s) = (1.94 A) * exp(-(9.00 * 10^(-6) s) / (3.00 * 10^(-6) s)) ≈ 0.472 A ≈ 472 mA
Therefore, the current in the resistor 9.00 µs after it is connected across the terminals of the capacitor is approximately 472 mA.
(b) To calculate the charge remaining on the capacitor after 8.00 µs, we can use the equation:
Q(t) = Q0 * exp(-t / RC)
Plugging in the values:
Q(8.00 * 10^(-6) s) = (5.81 * 10^(-6) C) * exp(-(8.00 * 10^(-6) s) / (3.00 * 10^(-6) s)) ≈ 1.35 μC ≈ 1.35 * 10^(-6) C
Therefore, the charge remaining on the capacitor after 8.00 µs is approximately 1.35 μC.
(c) The magnitude of the maximum current in the resistor occurs at the beginning of the discharge process when the capacitor is fully charged. The maximum current (Imax) can be calculated using Ohm's Law:
Imax = V0 / R
where V0 is the initial voltage across the capacitor.
The initial voltage (V0) can be calculated using the formula: V0 = Q0 / C = (5.81 * 10^(-6) C) / (2.00 * 10^(-9) F) = 2.91 * 10^(3) V
Plugging in the values:
Imax = (2.91 * 10^(3) V) / (1.50 * 10^(3) Ω) = 1.94 A
Therefore, the magnitude of the maximum current in the resistor is approximately 1.94 A.
To know more about capacitor click here:
https://brainly.com/question/31627158
#SPJ11
What does a triple-beam balance require the user to do?
O add the numbers from the three sliders to determine the mass of an object
O multiply the numbers from the three sliders to determine the mass of an object .
O add the numbers from the three sliders to determine the volume of an object. Omultiply the numbers from the three sliders to determine the volume of an object
Answer:
The correct option is:
O add the numbers from the three sliders to determine the mass of an object
Two pistons of a hydraulic lift have radii of 2.67 cm and 20.0 cm. A mass of 2.00×10 3
kg is placed on the larger piston. Calculate the minimum downward force needed to be exerted on the smaller piston to hold the larger piston level with the smaller piston. N
The minimum downward force required to exert more force for the smaller piston to hold a larger piston is 266.52 N
Radii of pistons = 2.67 cm and 20.0 cm
Mass of pistons = [tex]2.00*10^{3}[/tex]
Pressure = Force / Area
The areas of the pistons:
Area1 = π *[tex]r1^2[/tex]
Area2 = π * [tex]r2^2[/tex]
We need to equate both pistons, then we get:
Pressure1 = Pressure2
F1 / Area1 = F2 / Area2
F1 / (π * [tex]r1^2[/tex] ) = F2 / (π * [tex]r2^2[/tex] )
The weight can be calculated as:
Weight = mass * gravity
Weight = [tex]2.00 * 10^3 kg * 9.8 m/s^2[/tex]
F1 = (F2 * Area1) / Area2
F1 = [tex]((2.00 * 10^3 kg * 9.8 m/s^2)[/tex] * (π * [tex]r1^2[/tex] ) * (π * [tex]r2^2[/tex] )
F1 = [tex](2.00 * 10^3 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * r1^2) / r2^2[/tex]
F1 = [tex](2.00 * 10^3 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * (2.67 cm)^2) / (20.0 cm)^2[/tex]
F1 = 266.52 N
Therefore, we can conclude that the minimum downward force needed is 266.52 N.
To learn more about Pistons
https://brainly.com/question/31070038
#SPJ4
Suppose a 9.00 V CD player has a transformer for converting current in a foreign country. If the ratio of the turns of wire on the primary to the secondary coils is 22.5 to 1, what is the outlet potential difference? ____V
The outlet potential difference, after the voltage transformation by the transformer, is approximately 0.4 V.
The transformer in the CD player is used to convert the voltage from the foreign country's electrical system to a voltage suitable for the CD player. The transformer operates based on the principle of electromagnetic induction, where the ratio of turns on the primary coil to the secondary coil determines the voltage transformation.
Given:
Voltage on the primary coil (Vp) = 9.00 V
Turns ratio (Np/Ns) = 22.5/1
The turns ratio represents the ratio of the number of turns on the primary coil (Np) to the number of turns on the secondary coil (Ns).
To find the outlet potential difference, we can use the turns ratio equation:
Vp/Vs = Np/Ns
Substituting the given values:
9.00 V/Vs = 22.5/1
Now, we can solve for Vs (the outlet potential difference):
Vs = (9.00 V) / (22.5/1)
Vs = 0.4 V
To know more about primary coil (Np)
https://brainly.com/question/12000388
#SPJ11
Buck - Boost converter system parameters: Vg=48V input voltage, output voltage Vo=12V, output load R=1~100Ω, output filter inductance L=100μH, capacitance C=220μF, switch frequency fsw=40kHz, namely switch cycle Tsw=25μs. PWM modulator sawtooth amplitude VM=2.5V. Feedback current network transfer function Hi(s)=1 feedback partial voltage network transfer function Hv(s)=0.5
Draw the circuit and give Detailed derivation of the transfer function.
The Buck-Boost converter system consists of an input voltage of 48V, an output voltage of 12V, and various parameters such as load resistance, filter inductance, capacitance, switch frequency, and PWM modulator sawtooth amplitude. The feedback current network transfer function is given as Hi(s) = 1, and the feedback partial voltage network transfer function is Hv(s) = 0.5. The circuit diagram and transfer function derivation will be explained in detail.
The Buck-Boost converter is a DC-DC power converter that can step up or step down the input voltage to achieve the desired output voltage. Here is a step-by-step explanation of the circuit and the derivation of the transfer function:
1. Circuit Diagram: The circuit consists of an input voltage source (Vg), an inductor (L), a switch (S), a diode (D), a capacitor (C), and the load resistance (R). The PWM modulator generates a sawtooth waveform (VM) used for switching control.
2. Operation: During the switch ON period, energy is stored in the inductor. During the switch OFF period, the stored energy is transferred to the output.
3. Transfer Function Derivation: To derive the transfer function, we analyze the circuit using small-signal linearized models and Laplace transforms.
4. Voltage Transfer Function: By applying Kirchhoff's voltage law and using the small-signal model, we can derive the voltage transfer function Vo(s)/Vg(s) as a function of the circuit components.
5. Current Transfer Function: Similarly, by analyzing the current flow in the circuit, we can derive the current transfer function Io(s)/Vg(s) as a function of the circuit components.
6. Feedback Transfer Functions: The given feedback transfer functions, Hi(s) and Hv(s), relate the feedback current and voltage to the input voltage.
7. Overall Transfer Function: The overall transfer function of the Buck-Boost converter system can be obtained by combining the voltage transfer function, current transfer function, and feedback transfer functions.
By following these steps, the detailed derivation of the transfer function for the Buck-Boost converter system can be obtained. The transfer function describes the relationship between the input voltage and the output voltage, and it helps in analyzing and designing the converter system for the desired performance.
To know more about the Buck-Boost click here:
https://brainly.com/question/30776258
#SPJ11
A passenger on a moving train walks at a speed of 1.90 m/s due north relative to the train. The passenger's speed with respect to the ground is 4.5 m/s at an angle of 33.0° west of north. What are the magnitude and direction of the velocity of the train relative to the ground? magnitude m/s direction ° west of north
The magnitude and direction of Vt are 1.83 m/s due north. Thus, the velocity of the train relative to the ground is 1.83 m/s due north.
A passenger on a moving train walks at a speed of 1.90 m/s due north relative to the train. The passenger's speed with respect to the ground is 4.5 m/s at an angle of 33.0° west of north. To find the magnitude and direction of the velocity of the train relative to the ground, we need to use the vector addition technique. Let's denote the velocity of the passenger relative to the train as Vp and the velocity of the train relative to the ground as Vt. Then we have the following equations:Vp = 1.90 m/s due northVpg = 4.5 m/s at an angle of 33.0° west of northThe velocity of the passenger relative to the ground is the vector sum of Vp and Vt.
Therefore,Vpg = Vp + VtWe can resolve Vpg into its north and west components as follows:Vpg,n = Vpg cos θ = 4.5 cos 33.0° = 3.73 m/s due northVpg,w = Vpg sin θ = 4.5 sin 33.0° = 2.36 m/s west of northSince Vp is directed due north, the north component of Vpg must be due to Vt. Therefore, Vt,n = Vpg,n - Vp = 3.73 - 1.90 = 1.83 m/s due north. The west component of Vt is zero because there is no westward component in Vpg. Hence, the magnitude and direction of Vt are 1.83 m/s due north. Thus, the velocity of the train relative to the ground is 1.83 m/s due north.
Learn more about Equation here,
https://brainly.com/question/29174899
#SPJ11
As shown in the figure, where V = 0 at infinity, what is the net electric potential at P due to the q1= 3.8, q2 = 3.8, q3 = 2.5, q4 = 6, q5 = 4.6, q6 = 8.6 with d =9.1.
The net electric potential at P due to charges q1, q2, q3, q4, q5, q6 is 13.47 x 10⁹ V
Given, q1= 3.8 μC, q2 = 3.8 μC, q3 = 2.5 μC, q4 = 6 μC, q5 = 4.6 μC, q6 = 8.6 μC and d =9.1. We have to find the net electric potential at P due to these charges.Let V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6 be the electric potentials at point P due to charges q1, q2, q3, q4, q5, q6 respectively.
Also, let VP be the resultant potential at P due to all charges.We know that the electric potential at any point due to a point charge q at a distance d from it is given by,V = (1/4πε) (q/d) ...........(1)Where ε is the permittivity of free space and has a constant value of 8.85 x 10⁻¹² C²/Nm².
Therefore, the electric potential at P due to charges q1, q2, q3, q4, q5, q6 can be given by,V1 = (1/4πε) (q1/d) ...........(2)V2 = (1/4πε) (q2/d) ...........(3)V3 = (1/4πε) (q3/d) ...........(4)V4 = (1/4πε) (q4/d) ...........(5)V5 = (1/4πε) (q5/d) ...........(6)V6 = (1/4πε) (q6/d) ...........(7)The net electric potential at P is given by the sum of all the potentials.
Therefore,VP = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + V5 + V6 ...........(8)Substituting the given values in equations (2) to (7), we get,V1 = (1/4πε) (3.8 x 10⁻⁶/9.1) = 1.35 x 10⁹ VV2 = (1/4πε) (3.8 x 10⁻⁶/9.1) = 1.35 x 10⁹ VV3 = (1/4πε) (2.5 x 10⁻⁶/9.1) = 8.85 x 10⁸ VV4 = (1/4πε) (6 x 10⁻⁶/9.1) = 2.12 x 10⁹ VV5 = (1/4πε) (4.6 x 10⁻⁶/9.1) = 1.64 x 10⁹ VV6 = (1/4πε) (8.6 x 10⁻⁶/9.1) = 3.06 x 10⁹ V.
Substituting these values in equation (8), we get,VP = 1.35 x 10⁹ + 1.35 x 10⁹ + 8.85 x 10⁸ + 2.12 x 10⁹ + 1.64 x 10⁹ + 3.06 x 10⁹= 13.47 x 10⁹ VTherefore, the net electric potential at P due to charges q1, q2, q3, q4, q5, q6 is 13.47 x 10⁹ V when V = 0 at infinity and d = 9.1 m. Answer: 13.47 x 10⁹ V.equations
Learn more about equations here,
https://brainly.com/question/29174899
#SPJ11
A straight wire carries a current of 5 mA and is oriented such that its vector
length is given by L=(3i-4j+5k)m. If the magnetic field is B=(-2i+3j-2k)x10^-3T, obtain
the magnetic force vector produced on the wire.
Justify your answers with equations and arguments
The magnetic force produced by a straight wire carrying a current of 5 m
A is given as follows:The magnetic force vector produced on the wire is:F = IL × BWhere I is the current flowing through the wire, L is the vector length of the wire and
B is the magnetic field acting on the wire.
From the problem statement,I = 5 mA = 5 × 10^-3AL = 3i - 4j + 5kmandB = -2i + 3j - 2k × 10^-3TSubstituting these values in the equation of magnetic force, we get:F = 5 × 10^-3A × (3i - 4j + 5k)m × (-2i + 3j - 2k) × 10^-3T= -1.55 × 10^-5(i + j + 7k) NCoupling between a magnetic field and a current causes a magnetic force to be exerted. The magnetic force acting on the wire is orthogonal to both the current direction and the magnetic field direction. The direction of the magnetic force is determined using the right-hand rule. A quantity of positive charge moving in the direction of the current is affected by a force that is perpendicular to both the velocity of the charge and the direction of the magnetic field.
Learn more about Equation here,
https://brainly.com/question/29174899
#SPJ11
Look at the circuit diagram.
What type of circuit is shown?
open series circuit
open parallel circuit
closed series circuit
closed parallel circuit
The type of circuit shown in the diagram is a closed series circuit. The Option C.
What type of circuit is depicted in the circuit diagram?The circuit diagram illustrates a closed series circuit, where the components are connected in a series, forming a single loop. In a closed series circuit, the current flows through each component in sequence, meaning that the current passing through one component is the same as the current passing through the other components.
The flow of current is uninterrupted since the circuit forms a complete loop with no breaks or open paths. Therefore, the correct answer is a closed series circuit.
Read more about circuit
brainly.com/question/9637376
#SPJ1
Two identical balls of clay are positioned such that one piece is located 4.8 meters directly above the other, which is on the ground. The upper piece of clay is released from rest while the lower one is shot straight up from the ground at a speed of 6 m/s. When the clay balls collide, they stick together. Find the speed of the balls when they strike the ground together.
Please explain thoroughly, some solutions do not explain. Please
Given that: The height of the ball above the ground, h = 4.8 metersThe initial velocity of the lower ball, u = 6 m/sNow, the initial velocity of the upper ball = 0 m/s, because it is released from rest.
Both the balls have the same mass and collide inelastically, which means the total momentum of the system is conserved. Let v be the velocity of the combined mass of both the balls after the collision. Since the momentum of the system is conserved, we can write the equation as:mu + 0 = (mu + mv)vWhere,m is the mass of each ballu is the initial velocity of the lower ballv is the velocity of the combined mass of both the balls after the collision.
Therefore,v = u/2 = 6/2 = 3 m/sThis is the velocity with which the combined mass of both the balls moves upwards after the collision. Now we can find the time, T it takes to reach the maximum height using the formula:T = (2h/v)T = (2 × 4.8)/3 = 3.2 sUsing this time, we can find the velocity with which the combined mass of both the balls strikes the ground using the formula:v = gtwhere g = 9.8 m/s²v = 9.8 × 3.2 = 31.36 m/s
Therefore, the speed of the balls when they strike the ground together is 31.36 m/s or approximately 31 m/s (rounded to two decimal places).Hence, the correct answer is 31 m/s.
Learn more on momentum here:
brainly.in/question/54091389
#SPJ11
6. An airplane heads from Calgary, Alberta to Sante Fe, New Mexico at [S 28.0° E] with an airspeed of 662 km/hr (relative to the air). The wind at the altitude of the plane is 77.5 km/hr [S 75 W) relative to the ground. Use a trigonometric approach to answer the following. (4 marks) a. What is the resultant velocity of the plane, relative to the ground (groundspeed)?
The resultant velocity of the plane, relative to the ground (groundspeed) is approximately 315.82 km/hr which is calculated using a trigonometric approach.
To find the groundspeed of the plane, we need to calculate the resultant velocity by considering the vector addition of the plane's airspeed and the wind velocity.
First, we decompose the airspeed into its components. The southward component of the airspeed can be found by multiplying the airspeed (662 km/hr) by the sine of the angle between the direction of the airspeed and the south direction ([tex]28.0^0[/tex]). This gives us a southward airspeed component of approximately 309.81 km/hr.
Next, we decompose the wind velocity into its components. The westward component of the wind velocity is obtained by multiplying the wind velocity (77.5 km/hr) by the cosine of the angle between the wind direction and the east direction ([tex]180^0 - 75^0 = 105^0[/tex]). This gives us a westward wind component of approximately 31.59 km/hr.
Now, we can find the resultant velocity by adding the components. The groundspeed is the magnitude of the resultant velocity and can be calculated using the Pythagorean theorem. The groundspeed is approximately 315.82 km/hr.
To summarize, the resultant velocity of the plane, relative to the ground, is approximately 315.82 km/hr. This is obtained by considering the vector addition of the plane's airspeed and the wind velocity.
Learn more about velocity here:
https://brainly.com/question/30559316
#SPJ11
Sketch and label the equivalent circuit of DC series motor and DC compound generator b) A 220 V DC series motor runs at 800 rpm and takes 30A. The value of the armature and field resistance are 0.6 ≤ and 0.8 №, respectively. Determine: i. The back EMF. a) ii. iii. The torque developed in the armature. The output power if rotational losses are 250 W.
In the case of the DC series motor, the back EMF of the motor is 202 V.
The equivalent circuit of a DC series motor and DC compound generator can be represented as follows:
The armature resistance (Ra) is connected in series with the armature winding.
The field resistance (Rf) is connected in series with the field winding.
The back electromotive force (EMF) (Eb) opposes the applied voltage (V).
For the specific case mentioned:
Given:
Applied voltage (V) = 220 V
Speed (N) = 800 rpm
Current (I) = 30 A
Armature resistance (Ra) = 0.6 Ω
Field resistance (Rf) = 0.8 Ω
To calculate the back EMF (Eb) of the motor, we can use the following formula:
Eb = V - I * Ra
Substituting the given values:
Eb = 220 V - 30 A * 0.6 Ω
= 220 V - 18 V
= 202 V
To know more about armature resistance, here
brainly.com/question/32332966
#SPJ4
--The complete Question is, What is the equivalent circuit of a DC series motor and DC compound generator? In a specific case, a 220 V DC series motor runs at 800 rpm and draws a current of 30A. The armature resistance is 0.6 Ω, and the field resistance is 0.8 Ω. Calculate the back EMF of the motor.--
A projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 46.82m/s at an angle of 41.89°. It hits a target 1.09s later. How high (vertically) is the target?
Notes: Remember, a = g. Don't forget the units!
A projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 46.82m/s at an angle of 41.89°. It hits a target 1.09s later. The target is approximately 56.26 meters below the initial launch height.
To determine the vertical height of the target, we can analyze the projectile's motion and apply the equations of motion.
Let's break down the initial velocity into its vertical and horizontal components. The vertical component (Vy) can be found using the equation:
Vy = V × sin(θ)
where V is the initial velocity (46.82 m/s) and θ is the launch angle (41.89°). Plugging in the values:
Vy = 46.82 m/s × sin(41.89°)
≈ 29.70 m/s
Next, we can determine the time it takes for the projectile to reach its maximum height (t_max). At the highest point of the projectile's trajectory, the vertical velocity becomes zero. We can use the equation:
Vy = Vy_initial + g × t_max
where g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s^2). Plugging in the values:
0 = 29.70 m/s - 9.8 m/s^2 × t_max
Solving for t_max:
t_max = 29.70 m/s / 9.8 m/s^2
≈ 3.03 s
Since the total time of flight is given as 1.09 s, we can calculate the time it takes for the projectile to descend from its maximum height to hit the target:
t_descent = total time of flight - t_max
= 1.09 s - 3.03 s
≈ -1.94 s
The negative sign indicates that the projectile has already descended from its maximum height when it hits the target.
Now, let's find the vertical distance traveled during the descent. We can use the equation:
Δy = Vy_initial × t_descent + (1/2) × g × t_descent^2
Plugging in the values:
Δy = 29.70 m/s × (-1.94 s) + (1/2) × 9.8 m/s^2 × (-1.94 s)^2
≈ -56.26 m
The negative sign indicates that the target is located below the initial launch height. To find the actual vertical height of the target, we take the absolute value of Δy:
Vertical height of the target = |Δy|
≈ 56.26 m
Therefore, the target is approximately 56.26 meters below the initial launch height.
To learn more about projectile's motion visit: https://brainly.com/question/24216590
#SPJ11
3. Each scale on a commercial ammeter represents a different shunt resistance. Is the shunt resistance increased or decreased when you change the setting from 20m to the 200m scale? Explain. (5)
When changing the setting from the 20m scale to the 200m scale on a commercial ammeter, the shunt resistance is decreased.
An ammeter is used to measure current, and it is connected in series with the circuit. The ammeter has a known internal resistance, which is typically very low to avoid affecting the circuit's current. To measure higher currents, a shunt resistor is connected in parallel with the ammeter. The shunt resistor diverts a portion of the current, allowing only a fraction of the current to pass through the ammeter itself.
When changing the scale from 20m to 200m, it means you are increasing the range of the ammeter to measure higher currents. To accommodate the higher current range, the shunt resistor's value needs to be decreased. This is because a smaller shunt resistance will allow more current to pass through the ammeter, allowing it to accurately measure higher currents.
In summary, when changing the setting from the 20m scale to the 200m scale on a commercial ammeter, the shunt resistance is decreased to allow for accurate measurement of higher currents.
To know more about the shunt resistance
brainly.com/question/31872307
#SPJ11
a) The general form of Newton's Law of cooling is: T(t) = Ta +(T(0) – Tale-ke where T is the temperature at any time, t in minutes. Ta is the surrounding ambient temperature in °C and k is the cooling con- stant. Consider a cup of coffee at an initial temperature, T(0) of 80°C placed into the open air at 15°C. After 5 minutes the coffee cools to 65°C. Using these initial conditions: i) Calculate the cooling constant, k. ii) What will be the temperature of the coffee after exactly 13 minutes? iii) How long will it take for the coffee to reach 25°C?
i) The cooling constant (k) is approximately 0.6667.
ii) After exactly 13 minutes, the temperature of the coffee will be around 19.3°C.
iii) It will take approximately 43.7 minutes for the coffee to reach a temperature of 25°C.
i) To calculate the cooling constant (k):
k = (T(0) - Ta - T(t)) / (T(t) - Ta)
= (80 - 15 - 65) / (65 - 15)
= 0.6667
ii) To find the temperature of the coffee after exactly 13 minutes, we can substitute t = 13, T(0) = 80, Ta = 15, and k = 0.6667 into the Newton's Law of cooling equation:
T(13) = 15 + (80 - 15 - 15)e(-0.6667*13) ≈ 19.3°C
iii) To determine the time required for the coffee to reach 25°C:
t = ln((T(0) - Ta) / (T(0) - T)) / k
= ln((80 - 15) / (80 - 25)) / 0.6667
≈ 43.7 minutes
learn more about Temperature here:
https://brainly.com/question/32515222
#SPJ4
A transformer is used to step down 160 V from a wall socket to 9.1 V for a radio. (a) If the primary winding has 600 turns, how many turns does the secondary winding have?_____ turns (b) If the radio operates at a current of 480 mA, what is the current (in mA) through the primary winding? ____mA
(a) If the primary winding has 600 turns, how many turns does the secondary winding have? 34 turns (b) If the radio operates at a current of 480 mA, what is the current (in mA) through the primary winding? 27.2 mA.
(a) Given that the primary winding has 600 turns and the voltage across the primary winding is 160 V, and the voltage across the secondary winding is 9.1 V, we can calculate the number of turns in the secondary winding (N2) as follows: Picture is given below.
Therefore, the secondary winding has approximately 34 turns.
(b)To find the current through the primary winding, we can use the current ratio equation:
[tex]\frac{I1}{I2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{N2}{N1}[/tex]
where I1 and I2 re the currents through the primary and secondary windings respectively, and N1 and N2are the number of turns in the primary and secondary windings respectively.
Given that the current through the secondary winding (I2) is 480 mA, and the number of turns in the primary winding (N1) is 600, we can calculate the current through the primary winding (I1) as follows: Picture is given below.
Therefore, the current through the primary winding is approximately 27.2 mA.
To know more baout primary winding
https://brainly.com/question/28335926
#SPJ11
Water flows through a garden hose (radius =1.5 cm ) and fills a tub of volume V=200 Liters in Δt=5.6 minutes. What is the speed of the water in the hose in meters per second? Your Answer: Answer Question 15 (6 points) A beach ball is filled with air and has a radius of r=49 cm. How much mass would be needed to pull the ball underwater in a swimming pool? Answer in kg and assume the volume of the added weight is negligible.
Water flows through a garden hose and fills a tub of 200 Liters in 5.6 minutes. The speed of the water in the hose 0.841 meters per second. A beach ball is filled with air and has a radius of 49 cm and around 513.3 kg of mass is needed to pull the beach ball underwater in a swimming pool.
(a) To calculate the speed of water in the hose, we need to determine the flow rate. First, let's convert the volume of water from liters to cubic meters. Since 1 liter is equal to 0.001 cubic meters, we have:
Volume = 200 liters * 0.001 cubic meters/liter = 0.2 cubic meters
Next, let's convert the time from minutes to seconds:
Time = 5.6 minutes * 60 seconds/minute = 336 seconds
The flow rate (Q) can be calculated by dividing the volume by the time:
Q = [tex]\frac{Volume}{Time} }{}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{ 0.2 }{336}[/tex] = 0.0005952 cubic meters per second
The cross-sectional area of a circular hose can be calculated using the formula: Area =[tex]π * radius^2[/tex]
Given a radius of 1.5 cm, which is 0.015 meters, we have:
Area = [tex]π * (0.015 meters)^2[/tex] ≈ 0.00070686 square meters
Now we can calculate the speed (v) using the formula:
v = Q / Area = [tex]\frac{0.0005952}{0.00070686}[/tex] square meters ≈ 0.841 meters per second
Therefore, the speed of the water in the hose is approximately 0.841 meters per second.
(b) The volume of a sphere can be calculated using the formula:
Volume = [tex](\frac{4}{3} ) * π * radius^3[/tex]
Given a radius of 49 cm, which is 0.49 meters, we have:
Volume = [tex](\frac{4}{3} ) * π * 0.49^3[/tex] ≈ 0.512 cubic meters
The density of water is approximately 1000 kg/m^3. Therefore, the weight of the water displaced by the ball is:
Weight of water displaced = Volume * Density * gravitational acceleration
= 0.512 cubic meters * [tex]1000 kg/m^3 * 9.8 m/s^2[/tex]
≈ 5025.6 Newtons
To balance the buoyant force, an equal and opposite gravitational force is required. The gravitational force is given by:
Gravitational force = Mass * gravitational acceleration
To find the mass needed to balance the buoyant force, we divide the weight of water displaced by the gravitational acceleration:
Mass = Weight of water displaced / gravitational acceleration
=[tex]\frac{5025.6 Newtons}{9.8 m/s^2}[/tex]
≈ 513.3 kg
Therefore, approximately 513.3 kg of mass would be needed to pull the beach ball underwater in a swimming pool.
Learn more about here:
https://brainly.com/question/20165763
#SPJ11
1-ph transformer, 50Hz, core type transformer has square core of 24 cm side. The flux density is 1 Wb/m². If the iron factor is 0.95, the approximately induced voltage per turn is a) 6 b) 11 12 d) none of the above. 2-A transformer has full-load iron loss of 500 W. the iron loss at half-load will be a) 125 W b) 250 W 500 W d) none of the above. 3-A transformer will have maximum efficiency at ----------. a) full-load b) no-load c) 90% load none of the above 4-The hysteresis loss in a certain transformer is 40W and the eddy current loss is 50 W (both at 30Hz), then the iron loss at 50 Hz is ----. The flux density being the same. a) 180W 204W c) 302 none of the previous. 5-The voltage per turn of the high voltage winding of a transformer is per turn of the low voltage winding. the voltage a) More than b) the same as c) less than d) none of the previous B- 1- The low voltage winding is wound under the high voltage winding. Why.
1) The approximately induced voltage per turn is (b) 11.
2) The iron loss at half-load will be (a) 125 W.
3) The transformer will have maximum efficiency at (c) 90% load.
4) The iron loss at 50 Hz is (c) 302 W.
5) The voltage per turn of the high voltage winding of a transformer is (c) less than the voltage per turn of the low voltage winding.
B) The low voltage winding is wound under the high voltage winding to ensure better insulation and protection. Placing the low voltage winding at the bottom reduces the risk of high voltage breakdown and improves safety.
1) The formula for calculating the induced voltage per turn in a transformer is given by V = 4.44 fΦBN, where:
- V is the induced voltage per turn
- f is the supply frequency (50 Hz in this case)
- Φ is the flux density (in Wb/m²)
- B is the area of the square core (in m²)
- N is the number of turns of the transformer
Given:
- f = 50 Hz
- Φ = 1 Wb/m²
- B = 24 cm = 0.24 m (assuming it is the side of the square core)
- Iron factor = 0.95
First, calculate the area of the square core:
B = (side of square)² = (0.24 m)² = 0.0576 m²
Next, calculate the induced voltage per turn using the formula:
V = 4.44 * 50 * 1 * 0.0576 = 12.2 V (approximately)
Since the iron factor is 0.95, the actual induced voltage per turn will be:
V' = 0.95 * V = 0.95 * 12.2 = 11.59 V (approximately)
Therefore, the approximately induced voltage per turn is 11.59 V.
2) The iron loss of a transformer is proportional to the square of the flux and hence it depends on the square of the applied voltage. Therefore, the iron loss at half-load will be less than the full-load. Let's calculate the iron loss at half load:
Given:
Iron loss at full load = 500 W
Let the iron loss at half load be P. Therefore:
Iron loss at half load / Iron loss at full load = (Voltage at half load / Voltage at full load)²
P / 500 = (0.5 / 1)²
P / 500 = 0.25
P = 0.25 * 500 = 125 W
Hence, the iron loss at half-load is 125 W.
3) The efficiency of a transformer is given by the ratio of output power to input power:
η = output power / input power
For a transformer, output power = V2I2 and input power = V1I1.
The efficiency can be written as:
η = V2I2 / V1I1 = (V2 / V1) * (I2 / I1)
Now, we know that the voltage regulation of a transformer is given by:
Voltage regulation = (V1 - V2) / V2 = (V1 / V2) - 1
So, V1 / V2 = 1 / (1 - voltage regulation)
It can be observed that when voltage regulation is zero, efficiency is maximum. Hence, a transformer will have maximum efficiency at full load.
Therefore, the maximum efficiency of a transformer is achieved at full load.
4) Hysteresis loss in a transformer is given by the formula:
Ph = ηBmax^1.6fVt
Where:
Ph is the hysteresis loss
η is the Steinmetz hysteresis coefficient (a function of the magnetic properties of the material)
Bmax is the maximum flux density
f is the supply frequency
Vt is the volume of the core
In this case, we are given the iron loss at 50 Hz, which is equal to 500 W. Let's calculate the hysteresis loss at 50 Hz:
Given:
Iron loss at
50 Hz = P = 500 W
Since the flux density is the same, the hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are independent of frequency.
Therefore, the total iron loss at 50 Hz is the sum of hysteresis loss and eddy current loss:
Total iron loss at 50 Hz = hysteresis loss + eddy current loss = 500 W
Hence, the total iron loss at 50 Hz is 500 W.
5) The voltage per turn of a transformer is given by V / N, where V is the voltage and N is the number of turns. The voltage ratio of a transformer is given by the ratio of the number of turns of the high voltage winding to the number of turns of the low voltage winding.
Since the voltage ratio is defined as the high voltage divided by the low voltage, the voltage per turn of the high voltage winding is greater than the voltage per turn of the low voltage winding.
Therefore, the voltage per turn of the high voltage winding is greater than the voltage per turn of the low voltage winding.
To know more about transformer click here:
https://brainly.com/question/15200241
#SPJ11
The complete question is:
1-ph transformer, 50Hz, core type transformer has square core of 24 cm side. The flux density is 1 Wb/m². If the iron factor is 0.95, the approximately induced voltage per turn is a) 6 b) 11 12 d) none of the above. 2-A transformer has full-load iron loss of 500 W. the iron loss at half-load will be a) 125 W b) 250 W 500 W d) none of the above. 3-A transformer will have maximum efficiency at ----------. a) full-load b) no-load c) 90% load none of the above 4-The hysteresis loss in a certain transformer is 40W and the eddy current loss is 50 W (both at 30Hz), then the iron loss at 50 Hz is ----. The flux density being the same. a) 180W 204W c) 302 none of the previous d)500W. 5-The voltage per turn of the high voltage winding of a transformer is per turn of the low voltage winding. the voltage a) More than b) the same as c) less than d) none of the previous e) the low voltage winding. B- 1- The low voltage winding is wound under the high voltage
Draw ray diagram of an object placed outside the center of curvature of a concave mirror, and comment over the image formation (3 marks)
When an object is placed outside the center of curvature of a concave mirror, the ray diagram can be drawn to determine the image formation.
When an object is placed outside the center of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formation can be understood by drawing a ray diagram. To draw the ray diagram, follow these steps:
1. Draw the principal axis: Draw a straight line perpendicular to the mirror's surface, which passes through its center of curvature.
2. Place the object: Draw an arrow or an object outside the center of curvature, on the same side as the incident rays.
3. Incident ray: Draw a straight line from the top of the object parallel to the principal axis, towards the mirror.
4. Reflection: From the point where the incident ray hits the mirror, draw a line towards the focal point of the mirror.
5. Draw the reflected ray: Draw a line from the focal point to the mirror, which is then reflected in a way that it passes through the point of incidence.
6. Locate the image: Extend the reflected ray behind the mirror, and where it intersects with the extended incident ray, mark the image point.
7. The resulting image will be formed between the center of curvature and the focal point of the mirror. It will be inverted, real, and diminished in size compared to the object.
Learn more about focal point here:
https://brainly.com/question/32157159
#SPJ11
a magnitude of 15.3 N/C (in the positive z direction), what is the y component of the magnetic field in the region? Tries 2/10 Previous Tries 1b. What is the z component of the magnetic field in the region?
(a) The y-component of the magnetic field (By) in the region is 0.00 T.
(b) The z-component of the magnetic field (Bz) is 0.00 T.
What is the y and z component of the magnetic field?(a) The y component of the magnetic field in the region is calculated as;
By = (m · ax) / (q · vz)
where;
m is the mass of the electronax is the acceleration in the x-directionq is the charge of the electron vz is the velocity component in the z-directionThe given parameters;
ax = 0 (since there is no acceleration in the x-direction)
q = charge of an electron = -1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C
vz = 1.3 x 10^4 m/s
By = (m x 0) / (-1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ x 1.3 x 10⁴)
By = 0
(b) The z-component of the magnetic field (Bz) is calculated as;
Bz = (m · ay) / (q · vx)
where;
ay is the acceleration in the y-direction vx is the velocity component in the x-directionThe given parameters;
ay = 0 (since there is no acceleration in the y-direction)
Bz = (m x 0) / (-1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ x 1.3 x 10⁴)
Bz = 0
Learn more about magnetic field here: https://brainly.com/question/7802337
#SPJ4
The complete question is below:
An electron has a velocity of 1.3 x 10⁴ m/s, (in the positive x direction) and an acceleration 1.83 x 10¹² m/s² (in the positive z direction) in uniform electric field and magnetic field. if the electric field has a magnitude of 15.3 N/C (in the positive z direction),
a. what is the y component of the magnetic field in the region?
b. What is the z component of the magnetic field in the region?