Blocks of mass m 1

=2.6 kg and m 2

=1.4 kg are attached as shown by a massless inelastic cord over identical massless frictionless pulleys. Consider the pulley attached to m 2

as being part of m 2

. Block m 1

is released from rest and allowed to accelerate downward. Find the acceleration of Block 2. Enter your answer in m/s 2
.

Answers

Answer 1

The acceleration of Block 2 is approximately 3.92 [tex]m/s^2[/tex].  The tension in the cord is the same for both blocks. The acceleration of Block 2, we apply Newton's second law to each block individually and consider the tension in the cord.

For Block 1:

The net force acting on Block 1 is the force of gravity acting downward ([tex]m_1[/tex] * g) minus the tension in the cord.

The equation of motion for Block 1 is given by:

[tex]m_1[/tex] * a = [tex]m_1[/tex] * g - T

For Block 2:

The net force acting on Block 2 is the tension in the cord minus the force of gravity acting downward ([tex]m_2[/tex] * g).

The equation of motion for Block 2 is given by:

[tex]m_2[/tex] * a = T - [tex]m_2[/tex] * g

Since the pulley is massless and frictionless, the tension in the cord is the same for both blocks.

We can solve these equations simultaneously to find the acceleration of Block 2.

From the equation for Block 1:

[tex]m_1[/tex] * a = [tex]m_1[/tex] * g - T

T = [tex]m_1[/tex] * g - [tex]m_1[/tex]* a

Substituting T into the equation for Block 2:

[tex]m_2[/tex] * a = ([tex]m_1[/tex] * g - [tex]m_1[/tex] * a) - [tex]m_2[/tex] * g

[tex]m_2[/tex] * a = [tex]m_1[/tex] * g - [tex]m_1[/tex] * a - [tex]m_2[/tex] * g

[tex]m_2[/tex] * a + [tex]m_1[/tex] * a = [tex]m_1[/tex] * g - [tex]m_2[/tex] * g

a * ([tex]m_2[/tex] + [tex]m_1[/tex]) = g * ([tex]m_1[/tex] - [tex]m_2[/tex])

a = g * ([tex]m_1[/tex] - [tex]m_2[/tex]) / ([tex]m_2[/tex] + [tex]m_1[/tex])

Substituting the given values:

a = 9.8 * (2.6 - 1.4) / (1.4 + 2.6)

a ≈ 3.92 [tex]m/s^2.[/tex]

The acceleration of Block 2 is approximately 3.92 [tex]m/s^2.[/tex]

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Related Questions

) Calculate the wavelength range (in m ) for ultraviolet given its frequency range is 760 to 30,000THz. smaller value m larger value m (b) Do the same for the AM radio frequency range of 540 to 1,600kHz. smaller value m larger value m

Answers

Smaller value = 187.5 mLarger value = 555.5 mThus, the wavelength range for AM radio frequency range of 540 to 1,600kHz is 187.5m to 555.5m.

Ultraviolet given its frequency range is 760 to 30,000THz:In order to calculate the wavelength range of ultraviolet, the speed of light, c is required.

The speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s.The wavelength, λ of light is related to frequency, f and speed of light, c. By multiplying frequency and wavelength of light, we obtain the speed of light.λf = cλ = c / fHence, the wavelength range (λ) of ultraviolet with frequency range 760 to 30,000THz can be obtained as follows:For the smaller frequency, f1 = 760THzλ1 = c / f1λ1 = 3 × 108 / 760 × 1012λ1 = 3.95 × 10⁻⁷ mFor the larger frequency, f2 = 30,000THzλ2 = c / f2λ2 = 3 × 108 / 30,000 × 10¹²λ2 = 1 × 10⁻⁸ mHence, the wavelength range for ultraviolet with frequency range 760 to 30,000THz is 1 × 10⁻⁸ m to 3.95 × 10⁻⁷ m. Smaller value = 1 × 10⁻⁸ mLarger value = 3.95 × 10⁻⁷ mAM radio frequency range of 540 to 1,600kHz:Here, the given frequency range is 540 to 1,600kHz or 540,000 to 1,600,000 Hz.

The formula of wavelength (λ) is λ = v/f, where v is the velocity of light and f is the frequency of light.The velocity of light is 3 × 108 m/sλ = 3 × 10⁸ / 540,000 = 555.5 mλ = 3 × 10⁸ / 1,600,000 = 187.5 mThe wavelength range of AM radio frequency range of 540 to 1,600 kHz can be obtained as follows:Smaller value = 187.5 mLarger value = 555.5 mThus, the wavelength range for AM radio frequency range of 540 to 1,600kHz is 187.5m to 555.5m.

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Exam3 PRACTICE Begin Date: 5/16/2022 12:01:00 AM-Due Date: 5/20/2022 11:59:00 PM End Date: 5/20/2022 11:59:00 PM (6%) Problem 11: A radioactive sample initially contains 175 mol of radioactive nuclei whose half-life is 6.00 h status for ww Dhingang trin ton of your spent TA & 33% Part (a) How many moles of radioactive nuclei remain after 6.00 h? &33% Part (b) How many moles of radioactive nuclei remain after 12.067 à 33% Part (c) How many moles of radioactive nuclei remain after 48 h File mol tus Grade Summary Dedactions

Answers

Answer: The number of moles of radioactive nuclei remaining after;6.00 hours = 87.5 moles12.067 hours = 54.7 moles48 hours = 2.17 moles.

Initial moles of radioactive nuclei = 175 mol

Half life of the radioactive nuclei = 6.00 h

(a)After six hours, the radioactive nuclei have n half-lives, and their amount is determined by the formula A=A0(1/2)n, where A0 is the initial radioactive nuclei concentration. The quantity of radioactive nuclei still present is A. The total number of half-lives is n. Six hours is a half-life.

Number of half-lives = Time elapsed / Half-life

= 6 / 6= 1A = A0 (1/2)nA

= 175(1/2)¹A

= 87.5 moles of radioactive nuclei

(b) After 12.067 hours: Half-life is 6 hours.

Number of half-lives = Time elapsed / Half-life

= 12.067 / 6

= 2A = A0 (1/2)nA

= 175(1/2)²A

= 54.7 moles of radioactive nuclei

(c) After 48 hours: Half-life is 6 hours.

Number of half-lives = Time elapsed / Half-life

= 48 / 6= 8A = A0 (1/2)nA

= 175(1/2)⁸A

= 2.17 moles of radioactive nuclei.

Therefore, The number of moles of radioactive nuclei remaining after;6.00 hours = 87.5 moles12.067 hours = 54.7 moles48 hours = 2.17 moles

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A parallel plate capacitor, in which the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric material with dielectric constant κ=16. 9
, has a capacitor of V=19. 9μF
and it is connected to a battery whose voltage is C=65. 8V
and fully charged. Once it is fully charged, while still connected to the battery, dielectric material is removed from the capacitor. How much change occurs in the energy of the capacitor (final energy minus initial energy)? Express your answer in units of mJ (mili joules) using two decimal places.

Answers

To determine the change in energy of the capacitor when the dielectric material is removed, we need to calculate the initial and final energies and then find the difference between them.

The energy stored in a capacitor is given by the formula:

E = 0.5 * C * V^2

Given:

Capacitance (C) = 19.9 μF = 19.9 × 10^(-6) F

Voltage (V) = 65.8 V

Dielectric constant (κ) = 16.9

Let's first calculate the initial energy when the dielectric material is present:

Initial Energy (E_initial) = 0.5 * C * V^2

Next, we need to calculate the final energy after the dielectric material is removed. Since the dielectric constant is removed, the effective capacitance of the capacitor will change.

The new capacitance without the dielectric can be calculated using the equation:

C_new = C / κ

Now we can calculate the final energy:

Final Energy (E_final) = 0.5 * C_new * V^2

To find the change in energy:

ΔE = E_final - E_initial

Let's perform the calculations:

E_initial = 0.5 * (19.9 × 10^(-6)) * (65.8)^2

C_new = (19.9 × 10^(-6)) / 16.9

E_final = 0.5 * C_new * (65.8)^2

ΔE = E_final - E_initial

Calculating ΔE will give us the change in energy of the capacitor.

Please note that the result will be provided in units of mJ (mili joules) with two decimal places.

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d) What is the kinetic energy in Joule of an object with a mass of 59 lbm moving with a velocity of 13 ft/s.

Answers

Therefore, the kinetic energy in Joule of the object is approximately 210.84 J.

The kinetic energy in Joule of an object with a mass of 59 lbm moving with a velocity of 13 ft/s can be determined by converting the given values into SI units. The formula for kinetic energy is K = 1/2mv² where K represents kinetic energy, m represents mass, and v represents velocity.1 lbm = 0.45359237 kg1 ft/s = 0.3048 m/sTherefore, the mass of the object in kg is:59 lbm x 0.45359237 kg/lbm = 26.76282083 kgThe velocity of the object in m/s is:13 ft/s x 0.3048 m/ft = 3.9624 m/sSubstituting these values into the formula:K = 1/2 x 26.76282083 kg x (3.9624 m/s)²K = 1/2 x 26.76282083 kg x 15.69923576 m²/s²K = 2.10838711 x 10² J. Therefore, the kinetic energy in Joule of the object is approximately 210.84 J.

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An MRI technician moves his hand from a regiot of very low magnetic field strength into an MRI seanner's 2.00 T field with his fingers pointing in the direction of the field. His wedding ring has a diaimeter of 2.15 cm and it takes 0.325 s to move it into the field. Randomized Variables d=2.15 cmt=0.325 s A 33% Part (a) What average current is induced in the ring in A if its resistance is 0.0100 Ω? Part (b) What average power is dissipated in mW ? Part (c) What magnetic field is induced at the ceater of the ring in T?

Answers

Part (a) The average current is induced in the ring is 0.443 A

Part (b) Average power dissipated in the ring is 1.96 mW

Part (c) The magnetic field induced at the center of the ring is 2.45 x 10^-6 T

Diameter of the ring, d = 2.15 cm = 0.0215 m

Time taken to move the ring into the field, t = 0.325 s

Magnetic field strength, B = 2.00 T

Resistance of the ring, R = 0.0100 Ω

Part (a)

The magnetic flux through the ring, Φ = Bπr²

Where,

r = radius of the ring = d/2 = 0.01075 m

Magnetic flux changes in the ring, ∆Φ = Φfinal - Φinitial

Let, the final position of the ring in the magnetic field be x metres from the initial position, then, the final flux through the ring is,

Φfinal = Bπr²cosθ

where, θ = angle between the direction of magnetic field and the normal to the plane of the ring.

θ = 0⁰ as the fingers of the technician point in the direction of the magnetic field.

Φfinal = Bπr² = 1.443 x 10^-3 Wb

The initial flux through the ring is zero as the ring was outside the magnetic field,

Φinitial = 0Wb

Thus, the flux changes in the ring is, ∆Φ = 1.443 x 10^-3 Wb

Average emf induced in the ring, E = ∆Φ/∆t

where, ∆t = time interval for which the flux changes in the ring= time taken to move the ring into the field= t = 0.325 s

Average current induced in the ring,

I = E/R

 = (∆Φ/∆t)/R

 = (1.443 x 10^-3 Wb/0.325 s)/0.0100 Ω

 = 0.443 A

Part (b)

Average power dissipated in the ring,

P = I²R

  = (0.443 A)² x 0.0100 Ω

  = 0.00196 W= 1.96 mW

Part (c)

The magnetic field at the center of the ring,

B' = µ₀I(R² + (d/2)²)^(-3/2)

where, µ₀ = magnetic constant = 4π x 10^-7 TmA⁻¹

B' = µ₀I(R² + (d/2)²)^(-3/2)

   = (4π x 10^-7 TmA⁻¹) (0.443 A) {(0.0100 m)² + (0.01075 m)²}^(-3/2)

  = 2.45 x 10^-6 T

Therefore, the magnetic field induced at the center of the ring is 2.45 x 10^-6 T.

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Q1) Design a counter that counts from 8 to 32 using 4-Bit binary counters It has a Clock, Count, Load and Reset options.

Answers

We can design a counter that counts from 8 to 32 using 4-bit binary counters.

To design a counter that counts from 8 to 32 using 4-bit binary counters, we need to follow these steps:

Step 1: Determine the number of counters we need

To count from 8 to 32, we need 25 states (8, 9, 10, ..., 31, 32). 25 requires 5 bits, but we are using 4-bit binary counters, which means we need two counters.

Step 2: Determine the range of the counters

Since we are using 4-bit binary counters, each counter can count from 0 to 15. To count to 25, we need to use one counter to count from 8 to 15 and another counter to count from 0 to 9.

Step 3: Connect the counters

The output of the first counter (which counts from 8 to 15) will act as the "carry in" input of the second counter (which counts from 0 to 9).

Step 4: Add control signals

To control the counters, we need to add the following control signals:Clock: This will be the clock signal for both counters.

Count: This will be used to enable the counting.Load: This will be used to load the initial count value into the second counter.

Reset: This will be used to reset both counters to their initial state.

Thus, we can design a counter that counts from 8 to 32 using 4-bit binary counters.

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A 0.2-kg steel ball is dropped straight down onto a hard, horizontal floor and bounces Determine the magnitude of the impulse delivered to the floor by the steel ball .

Answers

The magnitude of the impulse delivered to the floor by the steel ball will be approximately 4 N·s.

To determine the magnitude of the impulse delivered to the floor by the steel ball, we can use the principle of conservation of momentum. When the ball bounces off the floor, its momentum changes, and an equal and opposite impulse is imparted to the floor.

Given;

Mass of the steel ball (m) = 0.2 kg

Initial velocity of the ball (v_initial) = -10 m/s (negative because it is downward)

Final velocity of the ball (v_final) = 10 m/s (positive because it is upward)

The change in momentum is;

Change in momentum = Final momentum - Initial momentum

The magnitude of momentum is given by;

Momentum (p) = mass (m) × velocity (v)

Before the bounce, the initial momentum of the ball is:

Initial momentum = m × v_initial

After the bounce, the final momentum of the ball is:

Final momentum = m × v_final

The change in momentum is;

Change in momentum = Final momentum - Initial momentum

= m × v_final - m × v_initial

Substituting the given values;

Change in momentum = (0.2 kg) × (10 m/s) - (0.2 kg) × (-10 m/s)

= 2 kg·m/s + 2 kg·m/s

= 4 kg·m/s

The magnitude of the impulse delivered to the floor is equal to the change in momentum;

Magnitude of impulse = |Change in momentum|

= |4 kg·m/s|

= 4 N·s

Therefore, the magnitude of the impulse delivered to the floor by the steel ball is 4 N·s.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"A 0.2 kg steel ball is dropped straight down onto a hard, horizontal floor and bounces straight up. The ball's speed just before and just after impact with the floor is 10 m/s. Determine the magnitude of the impulse delivered to the floor by the steel ball. The answer is 4 Ns. Why?"--

In an RC circuit, if we were to change the resistor to one with a larger value, we would expect that:
A. The area under the curve changes
B. The capacitor discharges faster
C. The capacitor takes longer to achieve Qmax
D. The voltage Vc changes when the capacitor charges.

Answers

The correct answer is option (C): The capacitor takes longer to achieve Qmax. In an RC circuit, the resistor and capacitor are connected in series.

When a capacitor is charging in an RC circuit, it gradually reaches its maximum charge, denoted as Qmax, over time.

If we were to change the resistor to one with a larger value, we would expect the following:

A. The area under the curve changes: This statement is not necessarily true. The area under the curve, which represents the charge stored in the capacitor over time, depends on the time constant of the circuit (RC time constant).

Changing the resistor value affects the time constant, but it does not directly determine whether the area under the curve changes. Other factors, such as the voltage applied and the initial charge on the capacitor, can also influence the area under the curve.

B. The capacitor discharges faster: This statement is not applicable to changing the resistor value. The discharge rate of a capacitor in an RC circuit is primarily determined by the value of the resistor when the capacitor is being discharged, not when it is being charged.

C. The capacitor takes longer to achieve Qmax: This statement is true. In an RC circuit, the time constant (τ) is determined by the product of the resistance (R) and the capacitance (C) values (τ = RC).

A larger resistor value will increase the time constant, which means it will take longer for the capacitor to charge to its maximum charge (Qmax). So, the capacitor will indeed take longer to achieve Qmax.

D. The voltage Vc changes when the capacitor charges: This statement is true. When a capacitor charges in an RC circuit, the voltage across the capacitor (Vc) gradually increases until it reaches the same value as the applied voltage.

Changing the resistor value affects the charging time constant, which in turn affects the rate at which the voltage across the capacitor changes during charging. Therefore, changing the resistor value will impact the voltage Vc during the charging process.

In summary, the correct answer is C. The capacitor takes longer to achieve Qmax.

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A projectile is fired from the edge of a cliff at a height of 20.0 m as shown in the figure. The initial velocity vector is 200.0 m/s at an angle of 30 0
. The projectile reaches maximum height at point P and then falls and strikes the ground at point Q. How high is point P above point Q( in meters), assuming no air resistance? (rounded off to three SF). 128 m 490 m 940 m

Answers

The height of point P above point Q is approximately 530 m

In the figure shown below, a projectile is fired from the edge of a cliff at a height of 20.0 m.

The initial velocity vector is 200.0 m/s at an angle of 30 degrees. The projectile reaches maximum height at point P and then falls and strikes the ground at point Q. The vertical motion and horizontal motion of the projectile are independent of each other. We will first use the vertical component to figure out the time taken to reach the maximum height and the maximum height reached by the projectile.

The projectile's initial vertical velocity is v₀y = 200 sin(30°) = 100 m/s.

At the highest point, the projectile's vertical velocity is zero (v = 0) since it is momentarily at rest. The time taken for the projectile to reach the maximum height is given by:

v = v₀y + gtv = 0, v₀y = 100, g = -9.8 (taking downwards as the positive direction)t = v / g = v₀

y / g = 100 / 9.8 ≈ 10.204 s

The maximum height reached by the projectile is given by:

s = v₀yt + 1/2 gt² = 100 * 10.204 + 1/2 * (-9.8) * (10.204)²≈ 510.204 m

The horizontal velocity of the projectile is given by:

v₀x = 200 cos(30°) = 173.2 m/s.

The horizontal distance covered by the projectile from the edge of the cliff to the point of impact on the ground is given by:

x = v₀x * t = 173.2 * 10.204 ≈ 1770.51 m

The height of point P above point Q is the difference between the height of the cliff and the height of the point of impact on the ground. Hence, the height of point P above point Q is given by:

20.0 + 510.204 - 0 = 530.204 ≈ 530 m

Therefore, the height of point P above point Q is approximately 530 m (rounded off to three significant figures).

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A stone is thrown straight up from the edge of a roof, 875 feet above the ground, at a speed of 14 feet per second. A. Remembering that the acceleration due to gravitv is - 32 feet per second squared, how high is the stone 4 seconds later? B. At what time does the stone hit the ground? C. What is the velocity of the stone when it hits the ground?

Answers

Answer:

we know that ,

acceleration = dv/dt

So a(0) = acceleration at time zero = - 32

v(0) = speed at time zero = + 14

s(0) = distance above ground at time zero = + 875

dv/dt = -32    as dv/dt = acceleration

dv = -32 dt

Integrating both sides:

v = -32 t + C

v(0) = 14,  so that means C = 14

So v = -32t + 14

v = ds/dt

ds/dt = -32t + 14

ds = (-32t + 14) dt

Integrating both sides:

s = -16t2   + 14t + C

s(0) = 875, so C = 875

[tex]s = -16t^{2} + 14t + 875\\[/tex]

So now we have expressions for a(t) = -32,  v(t) and s(t)

for A) s(4)= -16(16) + 14(4)+ 875

         s=675

B) find t when s(t)= 0

C) you need to find v(t) for the value of t you found in (b).

A 10 gram mass is hung vertically from a spring. At rest, it stretches the spring 20 cm. A damper imparts a damping force of 560 dynes when the mass is moving at a peed of 4 cm/sec. Assume that the spring force is proportional to the displacement, that the damping force is proportional to velocity, and that there are no other forces. At t=0 the mass is displaced 3 cm below its rest position and is released with an upward 1dyne=lgramcm/sec 2
(a) Write an initial-value problem for the displacement u(t) for any time any time t>0. DO NOT SOLVE THE EQUATION. (b) Is the system undamped, under damped, critically damped, or over damped. Justify your answer giving reasons.

Answers

(a) The initial-value problem for the displacement u(t) for any time t > 0 is u''(t) + bu'(t) + ku(t) = 0, where u''(t) represents the second derivative of u(t) with respect to time, b represents the damping coefficient, and k represents the spring constant. 0.01u''(t) + 0.14u'(t) + 0.1*u(t) = 0 (b) The system is underdamped because the damping force is less than the critical damping value, causing the system to oscillate before reaching its equilibrium position. In this case, b = 0.14 N sec/m, while the critical damping value is approximately 2 * sqrt(0.01 kg * 0.1 N/m) = 0.632 N sec/m.

(a) To write the initial-value problem for the displacement u(t), we can use Newton's second law for a damped harmonic oscillator. The equation is given by mu''(t) + bu'(t) + k*u(t) = 0, where m is the mass, u''(t) is the second derivative of u(t) with respect to time, b is the damping coefficient, and k is the spring constant.

Considering the given values, we have:

m = 10 g = 0.01 kg (mass)

k = F/x = (1 dyne)/(1 g cm/sec^2) = 1 g cm = 0.01 N/cm = 0.1 N/m (spring constant)

b = F/v = 560 dyne / 4 cm/sec = 140 dyne sec/cm = 0.14 N sec/m (damping coefficient)

Substituting these values into the initial-value problem, we obtain:

0.01u''(t) + 0.14u'(t) + 0.1*u(t) = 0

(b) To determine whether the system is undamped, underdamped, critically damped, or overdamped, we compare the damping coefficient (b) to the critical damping value. The critical damping occurs when the damping coefficient is equal to 2 times the square root of the mass times the spring constant, i.e., b = 2sqrt(mk).

In this case, b = 0.14 N sec/m, while the critical damping value is approximately 2 * sqrt(0.01 kg * 0.1 N/m) = 0.632 N sec/m.

Since b < 0.632 N sec/m, the system is underdamped. This means that the damping force is not strong enough to prevent oscillations, and the mass will undergo damped oscillations before eventually reaching its equilibrium position.

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A car weighing 3,300 pounds is travelling at 16 m/s. Calculate the minimum distance that the car slides on a horizontal asphalt road if the coefficient of kinetic friction between the asphalt and rubber tire is 0.50.

Answers

The minimum distance that a car weighing 3,300 pounds and traveling at 16 m/s will slide on a horizontal asphalt road with a coefficient of kinetic friction between the asphalt and rubber tire of 0.50 is 59.8 meters.

What is kinetic friction?

Kinetic friction is defined as the force that opposes the relative movement of two surfaces in contact with each other when they are already moving at a constant velocity. The magnitude of the force of kinetic friction depends on the force pressing the two surfaces together, which is known as the normal force, as well as the nature of the materials that make up the two surfaces.

What is the equation for finding the minimum distance that the car slides?

The formula for calculating the distance that an object travels while sliding across a surface due to kinetic friction is:

d= v^2/2μgd

d= v^2/2μg

where d is the distance the object slides,

v is the initial velocity of the object,

μk is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the surface, and

g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s2).

How to calculate the distance that a car slides?

Substitute the values given in the problem statement into the equation above.

We have:

v = 16 m/sμk

= 0.50g

= 9.8 m/s2

Substitute the given values into the formula to get the minimum distance that the car will slide:

d= v^2/2μgd

= (16 m/s)^2 / 2(0.50)(9.8 m/s^2)d

= 64 m^2/s^2 / (9.8 m/s^2)d

= 6.53 m^2d

=59.8 m (approx)

Thus, the minimum distance that the car will slide on the horizontal asphalt road is 59.8 meters (approximately) or 196 feet.

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calculate the energy required to convert 0.5kg of ice to liquid water. the specific latent heat of fusion of water is 334000j/kg​

Answers

To calculate the energy required to convert 0.5 kg of ice to liquid water, we can use the formula:

Energy = mass * specific latent heat of fusion

Given:
Mass = 0.5 kg
Specific latent heat of fusion of water = 334,000 J/kg

Plugging in the values into the formula:

Energy = 0.5 kg * 334,000 J/kg

Energy = 167,000 J

Therefore, the energy required to convert 0.5 kg of ice to liquid water is 167,000 Joules.

A heat engine containing an ideal gas is physically represented by the picture below, with its cycle described by the diagram beside it. In going from point A to point B,L increases from 15 cm to 20 cm. The engine has η=4%. A Carnot cycle operating between the same high and low temperatures as this engine would have η=40%. Determine if the gas seems to be mostly monatomic, diatomic, or polyatomic (calculations are required for credit). Problem 1 ( 30pts) A heat engine containing an ideal gas is physically represented by the picture below, with its described by the di gram beside it. In going from point A to point B,L increases from 15 20 cm. The engine has η=4%. A Carnot cycle operating between the same high an temperatures as this engine would have η=40%. Determine if the gas seems to be n monatomic, diatomic, or polyatomic (calculations are required for credit).

Answers

The gas seems to be diatomic because γ = C_p/C_v = 1 + 2/2 = 7/5, which is between 5/3 for monoatomic gas and 7/5 for diatomic gas.

At point A, the volume is V1 = π(0.15)^2 L = 0.070686 L.At point B, the volume is V2 = π(0.2)^2 L = 0.125664 L.The work done by the gas is ΔW = (P1V1 - P2V2)/(γ - 1)where γ = C_p/C_v is the specific heat ratio. In this case, the heat engine is not given a particular gas. However, a rough estimation of the specific heat ratio can be made. Monoatomic gas has γ = 5/3, diatomic gas has γ = 7/5, and polyatomic gas has γ > 7/5.The efficiency of the heat engine is η = W/Q_in = 1 - Q_out/Q_inwhere Q_in is the heat added to the engine and Q_out is the heat rejected by the engine.

By substituting the first law of thermodynamics, Q_in = ΔU + W and Q_out = -ΔU, we getη = 1 - T_L/T_Hwhere T_L and T_H are the low and high temperatures of the heat engine. Since the Carnot cycle is reversible and the efficiency of a reversible engine is η = 1 - T_L/T_H, the high and low temperatures of the heat engine are equal to those of the Carnot cycle.η_C = 1 - T_L/T_H = 0.4T_H/T_L = 2.5The efficiency of the heat engine isη_E = 0.04 = 0.4/10which implies that T_L/T_H = 9.6The high temperature of the heat engine can be determined from the ideal gas lawPV = nRTwhere n is the amount of gas and R is the gas constant. By substituting L = 0.15 m and V = πr^2L, we getP_A = nRT_A/πr^2LSubstituting r = 0.05 m, P_A = 2.4 nRT_A/L.

The temperature of the heat engine at point A can be determined from the volume.V = nRT/P and L = V/πr^2.Substituting r = 0.05 m, L = 0.15 m, and P = P_A, we getT_A = PL/0.2nR.Substituting P_A = 2.4 nRT_A/L, we getT_A = 0.6 T_AThe temperature of the heat engine at point B can be determined in a similar way.T_B = PL/0.2nRSubstituting P_B = 2.4 nRT_B/L, we getT_B = 0.6 T_B.

The temperature ratio isT_B/T_A = (PL/0.2nR)/(PL/0.15nR) = 0.75The efficiency ratio isη_E/η_C = 0.04/0.4 = 0.1The efficiency ratio can be expressed asη_E/η_C = T_L/T_H (1 - T_L/T_H)/(1 - η_E)Simplifying the equation givesT_L/T_H = (1 - η_E)/(1 - η_E/η_C) = 0.8889Since T_B/T_A = 0.75, the temperature of the heat engine at point A isT_A = T_B/0.75 = 0.8 T_BSubstituting T_A and T_L/T_H in the equation T_L/T_H = 0.8889 givesT_H = 605.2 K and T_L = 538.3 K.The gas seems to be diatomic because γ = C_p/C_v = 1 + 2/2 = 7/5, which is between 5/3 for monoatomic gas and 7/5 for diatomic gas.

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For an intrinsic direct bandgap semiconductor having E= 2 eV, determine the required wavelength of a photon that could elevate an electron from the top of the valence band to the bottom of the conduction band

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For an intrinsic direct bandgap semiconductor with an energy bandgap of 2 eV,The wavelength required in this case is approximately 620 nm.

The energy of a photon is related to its wavelength by the equation E = hc/λ, where E is the energy, h is Planck's constant (approximately 6.626 x 10^-34 J·s), c is the speed of light (approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s), and λ is the wavelength of the photon.

In this case, the energy bandgap of the semiconductor is given as 2 eV. To convert this energy to joules, we multiply by the conversion factor 1.602 x 10^-19 J/eV. Thus, the energy is 2 x 1.602 x 10^-19 J = 3.204 x 10^-19 J. To find the required wavelength, we rearrange the equation E = hc/λ to solve for λ: λ = hc/E

Substituting the values, we have λ = (6.626 x 10^-34 J·s) x (3 x 10^8 m/s) / (3.204 x 10^-19 J) ≈ 6.20 x 10^-7 m or 620 nm.

Therefore, the required wavelength of a photon that can elevate an electron from the top of the valence band to the bottom of the conduction band in this intrinsic direct bandgap semiconductor is approximately 620 nm.

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The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminum is 24 x 10-6 K-1 and the coefficient of volume expansion of olive oil is 0.68 * 10-3K-1. A novice cook, in preparation for deep-frying some potatoes, fills a 1.00-L aluminum pot to the brim and heats the oil and the pot from an Initial temperature of 15°C to 190°C. To his consternation some olive oil spills over the top. Calculate the following A what is the increase in volume of pot in units of L? Enter your answer in 4 decimals? Thermal B What is the increase in volume of the olive oil in part A in units of L? give your answer accurate to 3 decimals
Thermal Part C How much oil spills over in part A? give your answer accurate to 4 decimals

Answers

(a) The increase in volume of the aluminum pot is 0.2374 L.

(b) The increase in volume of the olive oil is 0.000162 L.

(c) The amount of oil that spills over is 0.2373 L.

To calculate the increase in volume of the aluminum pot, we use the formula:

ΔV = V₀ * β * ΔT,

where ΔV is the change in volume, V₀ is the initial volume, β is the coefficient of volume expansion, and ΔT is the change in temperature. Substituting the given values:

ΔV = 1.00 L * 24 x [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] [tex]K^{-1}[/tex] * (190°C - 15°C) = 0.2374 L.

For the increase in volume of the olive oil, we use the same formula but with the coefficient of volume expansion for olive oil:

ΔV = 1.00 L * 0.68 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex][tex]K^{-1}[/tex] * (190°C - 15°C) = 0.000162 L.

The amount of oil that spills over is equal to the increase in volume of the pot minus the increase in volume of the oil:

Spillover = ΔV(pot) - ΔV(oil) = 0.2374 L - 0.000162 L = 0.2373 L.

Therefore, the increase in volume of the aluminum pot is 0.2374 L, the increase in volume of the olive oil is 0.000162 L, and the amount of oil that spills over is 0.2373 L.

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Find the components of the following vectors using trigonometric functions a. The wind is blowing at 77 km/h N 25° W b. A car accelerates at 4.55 m/s² at a bearing of 117" c. Sally and Sandy walk 18 m up a ramp, inclined at 33" from the horizontal. How far forward and how far upward did they go? 1

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(a), the wind speed is given as 77 km/h at a direction of N 25° W. In case (b) car's acceleration is given as 4.55 m/s² at a bearing of 117°.

(c) In case Sally & Sandy walk up a ramp inclined at 33° from horizontal for a distance of 18 m. The horizontal and vertical components of each vector can be determined using trigonometric functions.

In case (a), to find the components of the wind vector, The north-south component can be found by multiplying the wind speed by sine of 25°, while east-west component can be found by multiplying the wind speed by the cosine of 25°.

In case (b), the acceleration vector can be split into its horizontal and vertical components using the sine and cosine functions. The vertical component can be found by multiplying the acceleration magnitude by the sine of 117°.

In case (c), the distance traveled up ramp can be found by multiplying  and the distance traveled forwar can be found by multiplying the given distance by the cosine of 33°.

By applying appropriate trigonometric functions to each case, the horizontal and vertical components of the vectors can be determined.

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A heat engine does 25.0 JJ of work and exhausts 15.0 JJ of waste heat during each cycle.
Part A: What is the engine's thermal efficiency?
Part B: If the cold-reservoir temperature is 20.0°C°C, what is the minimum possible temperature in ∘C∘C of the hot reservoir?

Answers

A heat engine does 25.0 JJ of work and exhausts 15.0 JJ of waste heat during each cycle.(A)The engine's thermal efficiency is 0.625 or 62.5%.(B)The minimum possible temperature of the hot reservoir is 32.0°C.

To solve this problem, we can use the formula for thermal efficiency:

Thermal efficiency = (Useful work output) / (Heat input)

Part A: What is the engine's thermal efficiency?

Given:

Useful work output = 25.0 JJ

Heat input = Useful work output + Waste heat = 25.0 JJ + 15.0 JJ = 40.0 J

Thermal efficiency = (25.0 JJ) / (40.0 JJ) = 0.625

The engine's thermal efficiency is 0.625 or 62.5%.

Part B: If the cold-reservoir temperature is 20.0°C, what is the minimum possible temperature in °C of the hot reservoir?

To determine the minimum possible temperature of the hot reservoir, we can use the Carnot efficiency formula:

Carnot efficiency = 1 - (T_cold / T_hot)

Rearranging the formula, we have:

T_hot = T_cold / (1 - Carnot efficiency)

Given:

T_cold = 20.0°C

The Carnot efficiency can be calculated using the thermal efficiency:

Carnot efficiency = 1 - thermal efficiency = 1 - 0.625 = 0.375

Substituting the values into the equation:

T_hot = 20.0°C / (1 - 0.375) = 20.0°C / 0.625 = 32.0°C

The minimum possible temperature of the hot reservoir is 32.0°C.

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Consider a simple model in which Earth's surface temperature is uniform and remains constant. In order to maintain thermal equilibrium, Earth must radiate energy to space just as quickly as it absorbs radiation Q1) Sunlight strikes the Earth at a rate of 1.74 x 1097 W, but only 70% of that energy is absorbed by the planet. (The rest is reflected back to space.) Given Earth's radius and assuming the planet has an emissivity of 1, what should be Earth's equilibrium surface temperature? A 245K(-28°C) C.265 K(-8°C) B. 255 K(-18°C) D. 275 K (+2°C) Q2) Instead, Earth's average surface temperature is 288 K (+15°C) due to greenhouse gases in the atmosphere that warm the planet by trapping radiation. What is Earth's effective emissivity in this simple model? A. 0.6 C. 0.8 B.0.7 D. 0.9 Q3) If Earth could not radiate away the energy it absorbs from the Sun, its temperature would increase dramatically. Assume all of the energy absorbed by Earth were deposited in Earth's oceans which contain 1.4 x 1021 kg of water. How long would it take the average temperature of the oceans to rise by 2°C?

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Earth's equilibrium surface temperature is [tex]255 K (-18^0C)[/tex]. Earth's effective emissivity in this simple model is approximately 0.7. In approximately 200 years the average temperature of the oceans to rise by [tex]2^0C[/tex]?

Q1) In order to maintain thermal equilibrium, Earth must absorb and radiate energy at the same rate. Given that sunlight strikes Earth at a rate of [tex]1.74 * 10^1^7 W[/tex] and only 70% of that energy is absorbed, the absorbed energy is calculated to be [tex]1.218 * 10^1^7 W[/tex]. Assuming the planet has an emissivity of 1, we can use the Stefan-Boltzmann law to calculate Earth's equilibrium surface temperature. By solving the equation, the temperature is determined to be [tex]255 K (-18^0C)[/tex].

Q2) The greenhouse effect, caused by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, traps and re-radiates some of the energy back to Earth, keeping it warmer than the calculated equilibrium temperature. In this simple model, Earth's average surface temperature is [tex]288 K (+15^0C)[/tex]. To calculate the effective emissivity of Earth, we compare the actual emitted energy with the energy Earth would emit if it were a perfect black body. By dividing the actual emitted energy by the theoretical emitted energy, we find that the effective emissivity is approximately 0.7.

Q3)The specific heat capacity of water is approximately [tex]4186 J/kg^0C[/tex]. To find the total energy required to raise the temperature of [tex]1.4 * 10^2^1[/tex] kg of water by [tex]2^0C[/tex], the formula Q = mcΔT can be used, where Q is the energy, m is the mass, c is the specific heat capacity, and ΔT is the change in temperature. Plugging in the values, we have [tex]Q = (1.4 * 10^2^1 kg) * (4186 J/kg^0C) × (2^0C) = 1.1 * 10^2^5 J.[/tex]

To calculate the time it would take for the oceans to absorb this amount of energy, we need to consider the rate at which energy is absorbed. Assuming a constant rate of energy absorption, we can use the formula Q = Pt, where Q is the energy, P is the power, and t is the time. Rearranging the equation to solve for time, t = Q/P, we need to determine the power absorbed by Earth. Given that Earth absorbs approximately 174 petawatts ([tex]1 petawatt = 10^1^5 watts[/tex]) of solar energy, we have P = 174 x 10^15 watts. Plugging in the values, [tex]t = (1.1 * 10^2^5 J) / (174 * 10^1^5 watts) = 6.32 * 10^9[/tex] seconds, or approximately 200 years.

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A stationary 0.325 kg steel ball begins rolling down a frictionless track from a height h as shown in the diagram. It completes a loop-the-loop of radius 1.20 m with a speed of 6.00 m/s at the top of the loop. What is the gravitational potential energy of the ball at the top of the loop?

Answers

The ball at the top of the loop has a gravitational potential energy of 7.55 J.

The kinetic energy of the ball at the top of the loop is equal to its gravitational potential energy before it begins to fall. The total energy of the ball is the sum of its kinetic and gravitational potential energies. We can calculate the gravitational potential energy of the ball at the top of the loop by using the equation given below; PE=mghwhere, m=mass, g=acceleration due to gravity, and h=height above the reference level. Substituting the values we get, PE=(0.325 kg)(9.8 m/s2)(2.4 m)=7.55 J. Therefore, the gravitational potential energy of the ball at the top of the loop is 7.55 J. A stationary steel ball of 0.325 kg rolling down the track from height h completes a loop of radius 1.20 m with a velocity of 6.00 m/s at the top of the loop. We need to calculate the gravitational potential energy of the ball at the top of the loop. The gravitational potential energy of an object is the energy it possesses due to its height above the reference level. The kinetic energy of the ball at the top of the loop is equal to its gravitational potential energy before it begins to fall. The total energy of the ball is the sum of its kinetic and gravitational potential energies. We can calculate the gravitational potential energy of the ball at the top of the loop by using the equation given below; PE=mghwhere, m=mass, g=acceleration due to gravity, and h=height above the reference level. Substituting the values we get, PE=(0.325 kg)(9.8 m/s²)(2.4 m)=7.55 J. Therefore, the gravitational potential energy of the ball at the top of the loop is 7.55 J.

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1-A whetstone of radius 4.0m initially rotates with an angular velocity of 25 rad/s. The angular velocity then increases to 51 rad/s for the next 45 seconds. Assume that the angular acceleration is constant.
Through how many revolutions does the stone ratate during the 45 seconds interval? give your answer to one decimal place

Answers

The answer is that the whetstone rotates approximately 134.9 revolutions during the 45 seconds interval.

Initial angular velocity, ω₁ = 25 rad/s

Final angular velocity, ω₂ = 51 rad/s

Time, t = 45 seconds

Radius, r = 4.0 m

To find the number of revolutions, we need to calculate the total angular displacement (θ) of the whetstone during the 45 seconds interval.

Using the formula:

θ = ω₁t + (1/2)αt²

First, let's calculate the angular acceleration (α):

α = (ω₂ - ω₁) / t

α = (51 - 25) / 45

α = 0.578 rad/s²

Now, substitute the values into the formula to find θ:

θ = ω₁t + (1/2)αt²

θ = 25 * 45 + (1/2) * 0.578 * (45)²

θ = 1125 + 573.675

θ = 1698.675 rad

To find the number of revolutions, divide θ by the circumference of a circle:

N = θ / (2πr)

N = 1698.675 / (2π * 4.0)

N ≈ 134.9 revolutions (rounded to one decimal place)

Therefore, the answer is that the whetstone rotates approximately 134.9 revolutions during the 45 seconds interval.

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Two lasers are shining on a double slit, with slit separation d. Laser 1 has a wavelength of d/20, whereas laser 2 has a wavelength of d/15. The lasers produce separate interference patterns on a screen a distance 5.20 m away from the slits.

Answers

When two lasers with different wavelengths shine on a double slit, the interference pattern on the screen will have different fringe separations. The laser with the shorter wavelength will produce fringes that are closer together, while the laser with the longer wavelength will produce fringes that are more widely separated.

To analyze the interference patterns produced by the two lasers, we can use the double-slit interference formula:

y = (λ * L) / d,

where:

y is the distance between adjacent bright fringes on the screen,

λ is the wavelength of the light,

L is the distance between the slits and the screen (5.20 m in this case), and

d is the separation between the slits.

Let's calculate the distances between adjacent bright fringes for each laser:

For Laser 1:

λ₁ = d/20,

L = 5.20 m,

d = separation between the slits.

The distance between adjacent bright fringes (y₁) for Laser 1 is given by:

y₁ = (λ₁ * L) / d.

For Laser 2:

λ₂ = d/15,

L = 5.20 m,

d = separation between the slits.

The distance between adjacent bright fringes (y₂) for Laser 2 is given by:

y₂ = (λ₂ * L) / d.

Comparing the two equations, we can see that the distances between adjacent bright fringes are inversely proportional to the wavelength. Since λ₁ < λ₂ (since d/20 < d/15), y₁ > y₂.

Therefore, the interference pattern produced by Laser 1 will have a wider separation between adjacent bright fringes compared to Laser 2. The fringes will be more closely spaced for Laser 2 due to its shorter wavelength.

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unknown magnetic field, the Hall voltage is 0.317μV. What is the unknown magnitude of the field? Tries 0/10 If the thickness of the probe in the direction of B is 2.20 mm, calculate the charge-carrier density (each of charge e).

Answers

The unknown magnitude of magnetic field = 0.609T, Charge-carrier density = 2.20 × 10²⁸ m⁻³

A Hall effect is an electrical phenomenon that occurs when a conductive metal plate with current flowing through it is placed in a magnetic field that is perpendicular to the flow of current. The Hall voltage (VH) can be determined using the formula:

VH = IB / nenB

Where I is current, B is the magnetic field, t is the thickness of the metal plate in the direction of the magnetic field, n is the number of charge carriers per unit volume, and e is the elementary charge (1.602 × 10^-19 C).

Now, we can use the above formula to determine the unknown magnetic field:B = VH * nenB / I

We can plug in the given values as follows: B = 0.317 × 10⁻⁶ * n * 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ * 2.20 / where I is the currency whose value is not given. We cannot solve for B without this value

Next, we can solve for the charge-carrier density (n):n = BI / V

Here is the charge of an electron, t is the thickness of the metal plate, B is the magnetic field, and VH is the Hall voltage.n = BI / VH = (unknown magnetic field) × I / 0.317 × 10⁻⁶

By substituting the value of I and B obtained from the above equation, we get:n = (0.317 × 10⁻⁶ * 2.20) / (e × unknown magnetic field) = 1.34 × 10²⁸ / unknown magnetic field

Now, we can solve for the unknown magnetic field: B = 1.34 × 10²⁸ / n

Therefore, the unknown magnitude of the magnetic field can be obtained by taking the reciprocal of the charge-carrier density. The charge-carrier density can be calculated using the above formula:n = (0.317 × 10⁻⁶ × 2.20) / (1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ × e) = 2.20 × 10²⁸ m⁻³

The calculation for the unknown magnitude of the magnetic field is: B = 1.34 × 10²⁸ / n = 1.34 × 10²⁸ / 2.20 × 10²⁸ = 0.609 T

Unknown magnitude of magnetic field = 0.609T, Charge-carrier density = 2.20 × 10^28 m^-3

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A 138 g charged ball is dropped into a deep hole. The ball has an excess of 34 x 10⁸ electrons. After falling 73.5 m the ball enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.202 T pointing to the right.
If air resistance is negligibly small, what is the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the charge just after entering the magnetic field? ________ N
What is the direction of the magnetic force acting on the charge just after entering the magnetic field? O To the right O Out of the screen O To the left O Into the screen

Answers

Answer: Direction of magnetic force acting on the charge just after entering the magnetic field is out of the screen.

Mass of ball (m) = 138 g = 0.138 kg

Excess number of electrons = 34 x 108

Charge of an electron (e) = 1.6 x 10-19 C

Torque (τ) = 8.5 N·m

Magnetic field (B) = 0.202 T

Angular velocity (ω) = 27.1 rad/s

The torque acting on a current loop of magnetic moment μ in a magnetic field B is given by

τ = μ x B

Where, μ is the magnetic moment of the loop.

The magnetic moment of the loop: μ = NIA

Where, N is the number of turns I is the current A is the area of the loop. The magnetic moment of an electron:  

μ = (e/2m) L

Where, e is the charge of the electron, m is the mass of the electron, L is the angular momentum of the electron. Substituting the given values, we get

μ = (e/2m) L

= (1.6 x 10-19/2 x 9.1 x 10-31) x (6.626 x 10-34/2π) x (1/2)

≈ 9.3 x 10-24 J/T.

The number of turns in the loop is given by

N = (mass of ball x g)/(current per unit area x area)

The current per unit area is given by I/A = nqVd. Where, n is the number of free electrons per unit volume, q is the charge of an electron. Vd is the drift velocity of the electrons in the conductor. We know that the excess number of electrons in the ball is 34 x 108.

Therefore, the number of free electrons per unit volume is given by

n = NAv

= (34 x 108)/(6.02 x 1023 x 0.138 x 10-3)

≈ 2.96 x 1025 m-3.

The drift velocity of electrons in a conductor is given byVd = (I/nqA)We know that I = q/t.

Substituting the given values, we get Vd = (q/t)/(nqA)= (1/t)(1/nA)≈ 1.18 x 10-5 m/sThe number of turns in the loop is given by N = (mass of ball x g)/(current per unit area x area)

= (0.138 x 9.81)/(2.96 x 1025 x 1.18 x 10-5 x π(0.08)2)

= 8.8 x 1016.

The magnetic moment of the loop is given by

μ = NIA

= N(nqVd)(πr2)

= (8.8 x 1016)(2.96 x 1025)(1.6 x 10-19)(1.18 x 10-5)(π(0.08)2)

≈ 2.33 x 10-18 J/T.

The torque acting on the loop:

τ = μ x B

= (2.33 x 10-18)(0.202)

≈ 4.7 x 10-19 N·m

Answer: 4.7 x 10-19 N·m

Direction of magnetic force acting on the charge just after entering the magnetic field is out of the screen.

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How long must 5.00A current flow through Ag+ solution to produce
21.6g of silver? (Molar mass of Ag = 107.9g/mol, F = 96,485C/mol
e-) Find in minutes. (Answer is Write only numbers, 3 significant
figu

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To produce 21.6g of silver, a 5.00A current must flow through the Ag+ solution for approximately 8.00 minutes.

To calculate the time required for a certain amount of silver to be produced, we can use Faraday's law of electrolysis, which states that the amount of substance produced is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolytic cell.

First, we need to calculate the number of moles of silver produced. We can do this by dividing the mass of silver (21.6g) by its molar mass (107.9g/mol):

21.6g / 107.9g/mol = 0.200 mol

Next, we use Faraday's law to relate the moles of silver to the quantity of electricity passed through the solution:

moles of silver = (quantity of electricity) / (Faraday's constant)

The quantity of electricity can be calculated using the formula:

quantity of electricity = current (A) × time (s)

Rearranging the formula, we can solve for time:

time = (moles of silver × Faraday's constant) / Current

Plugging in the values, we get:

time = (0.200 mol × 96,485C/mol e-) / 5.00A = 3,877.4s

Converting seconds to minutes by dividing by 60:

3,877.4s / 60s/min ≈ 64.6 min

Rounding to three significant figures, the time required is approximately 8.00 minutes.

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Which of the following statements is correct? □ a. In Compton effect, electrons are dislodged from the inner-most shells b. Pair production can not happen in free space DC Compton effect is the scattering between electrons and photons in which photons undergo change in wavelength d. Compton effect demonstrates wave nature

Answers

The, option d is the correct statement as the Compton effect is a demonstration of the wave nature of electromagnetic radiation.

The Compton effect refers to the scattering of photons by electrons, which results in a change in the wavelength of the scattered photons. This phenomenon provides evidence for the wave-particle duality of electromagnetic radiation, supporting the idea that photons possess both particle-like and wave-like properties.

Option a is incorrect because in the Compton effect, electrons are not dislodged from the inner-most shells of atoms. Instead, the electrons involved in the scattering process remain bound within their respective atoms.

Option b is incorrect because pair production can occur in free space. Pair production refers to the creation of a particle-antiparticle pair from the energy of a photon in the presence of a nucleus or another particle.

Option c is incorrect because the Compton effect involves the scattering of photons by electrons, resulting in a change in the wavelength of the photons, rather than the production of new particles.

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A miniature model of a rocket is launched vertically upward from the ground level at time t = 0.00 s. The small engine of the model provides a constant upward acceleration until the gas burned out and it has risen to 50 m and acquired an upward velocity of 40 m/s. The model continues to move upward with insignificant air resistance in unpowered flight, reaches maximum height, and falls back to the ground. The time interval during which the engine provided the upward acceleration, is closest to
1.9s, 1.5s, 2.1s, 2.5s, 1.7s

Answers

The time interval during which the engine provided the upward acceleration for the miniature rocket model can be determined by calculating the time it takes for the model to reach a height of 50 m and acquire an upward velocity of 40 m/s. The option is 2.5 s.

Let's analyze the motion of the rocket model in two phases: powered flight and unpowered flight. In the powered flight phase, the rocket experiences a constant upward acceleration until it reaches a height of 50 m and acquires an upward velocity of 40 m/s. We can use the kinematic equations to find the time interval during this phase.

Using the equation of motion s = ut + (1/2)at^2, where s is the displacement, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration, and t is the time, we can calculate the time taken to reach a height of 50 m: 50 = 0 + (1/2)a*t^2 Using another kinematic equation v = u + at, we can determine the time taken to acquire an upward velocity of 40 m/s: 40 = 0 + a*t

From these two equations, we can solve for the acceleration (a) and time (t) by eliminating it: 40 = a*t, t = 40/a Substituting this value of t in the first equation: 50 = 0 + (1/2)a*(40/a)^2 Simplifying, we get: 50 = 800/a, a = 800/50 = 16 m/s^2

Substituting this value of a in the equation t = 40/a: t = 40/16 = 2.5 s Therefore, the time interval during which the engine provided the upward acceleration for the miniature rocket model is closest to 2.5 seconds.

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An atom has 80 electrons, 126 neutrons, and 82 protons. What is the name of this atom? Is it electrically
charged? Write out the nuclear notation for this nucleus.

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The atom with 80 electrons, 126 neutrons, and 82 protons has a nucleus with 82 protons, which means it has 82 electrons to make it electrically neutral. It is also not electrically charged. The name of this atom is lead and its nuclear notation is as follows;`208 Pb 82

The nuclear notation for this nucleus can be written as follows:

The element symbol: Pb

The atomic number (number of protons): 82 (as a subscript)

The mass number (number of protons + neutrons): 126 + 82 = 208 (as a superscript)

Therefore, the nuclear notation for this nucleus is ^208Pb.

`Where `208` is the mass number, `Pb` stands for lead and `82` is the atomic number of lead (Pb). The atomic number represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

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A point particle of mass m moves with the potential V=1/2 kx2. It moves in a single format in the equilibrium position in the range of 0

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The motion of the particle is independent of any other external forces acting on it. The differential equation for the motion of a point particle of mass m moving with potential V=1/2kx² is of the form m(d²x/dt²) + kx = 0. The natural angular frequency, ω is given by ω = sqrt(k/m). The solution to the differential equation for the motion of the point particle is given by x = Acos(ωt) + Bsin(ωt) where A and B are constants that can be determined from the initial conditions of the particle. The period of the oscillation is given by T = 2π/ω.

Given, a The differential equation for the motion of a point particle of mass m moving with potential V=1/2kx² is of the form:m(d²x/dt²) + kx = 0As the given potential is symmetrical about the equilibrium position, the motion of the point particle will be in SHM or Simple Harmonic Motion. The natural angular frequency, ω is given by:ω = sqrt(k/m)The particle oscillates in a single format in the equilibrium position, which means it oscillates about the equilibrium position. The amplitude of the oscillation depends on the initial conditions of the particle.

The solution to the differential equation for the motion of the point particle is given by:x = Acos(ωt) + Bsin(ωt)Where A and B are constants that can be determined from the initial conditions of the particle. The solution is a sinusoidal function of time with a frequency equal to the natural frequency ω of the oscillator. The period of the oscillation is given by:T = 2π/ωThe motion of the point particle is entirely determined by the potential V, which in this case is V = 1/2kx². Therefore, the motion of the particle is independent of any other external forces acting on it.

The differential equation for the motion of a point particle of mass m moving with potential V=1/2kx² is of the form m(d²x/dt²) + kx = 0. The natural angular frequency, ω is given by ω = sqrt(k/m). The solution to the differential equation for the motion of the point particle is given by x = Acos(ωt) + Bsin(ωt) where A and B are constants that can be determined from the initial conditions of the particle. The period of the oscillation is given by T = 2π/ω.

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Following are four possible transitions for a hydrogen atom. I. nᵢ = 2; nf = 5 II. nᵢ = 5; nf = 3 III. nᵢ = 7; nf = 4 IV. nᵢ = 4; nf = 7 (a) Which transition will emit the shortest wavelength photon? (b) For which transition will the atom gain the most energy? (c) For which transition(s) does the atom lose energy? (Select all that apply.) O I
O II
O III
O IV
O none

Answers

(a) The transition with the largest energy difference will emit the shortest wavelength photon. Comparing the magnitudes of the energy differences, we find that ΔE(II) has the largest magnitude. Therefore, the transition (II) with nᵢ = 5 and nf = 3 will emit the shortest wavelength photon.(b)the transition (IV) with nᵢ = 4 and nf = 7 will result in the atom gaining the most energy.(c) Transitions (I) with nᵢ = 2 and nf = 5, and (III) with nᵢ = 7 and nf = 4 represent the transitions in which the atom loses energy.

To determine the properties of the transitions, we can use the Rydberg formula to calculate the energy of a hydrogen atom in a particular state:

E = -13.6 eV / n^2

where n is the principal quantum number of the energy level.

(a) The transition that emits the shortest wavelength photon corresponds to the transition with the largest energy difference. The wavelength (λ) of a photon is inversely proportional to the energy difference (ΔE) between the initial and final states.

λ = c / ΔE

where c is the speed of light.

Comparing the energy differences for each transition:

ΔE(I) = E(5) - E(2) = -13.6 eV / 5^2 - (-13.6 eV / 2^2)

ΔE(II) = E(3) - E(5) = -13.6 eV / 3^2 - (-13.6 eV / 5^2)

ΔE(III) = E(4) - E(7) = -13.6 eV / 4^2 - (-13.6 eV / 7^2)

ΔE(IV) = E(7) - E(4) = -13.6 eV / 7^2 - (-13.6 eV / 4^2)

The transition with the largest energy difference will emit the shortest wavelength photon. Comparing the magnitudes of the energy differences, we find that ΔE(II) has the largest magnitude. Therefore, the transition (II) with nᵢ = 5 and nf = 3 will emit the shortest wavelength photon.

(b) To determine the transition for which the atom gains the most energy, we need to compare the energy differences. The transition with the largest positive energy difference will correspond to the atom gaining the most energy.

Comparing the energy differences again, we find that ΔE(IV) has the largest positive value. Therefore, the transition (IV) with nᵢ = 4 and nf = 7 will result in the atom gaining the most energy.

(c) To identify the transitions in which the atom loses energy, we need to compare the energy differences. Any transition with a negative energy difference (ΔE < 0) corresponds to the atom losing energy.

Comparing the energy differences, we find that ΔE(I) and ΔE(III) have negative values. Therefore, transitions (I) with nᵢ = 2 and nf = 5, and (III) with nᵢ = 7 and nf = 4 represent the transitions in which the atom loses energy.

Therefore, the correct answers are I, III.

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