Out of the given options, the statement that is true for the eighth week is, "All organ systems have appeared."The development of a fetus begins from fertilization until birth, which takes around 38 weeks.
At eight weeks, the embryo develops into a fetus, and most of the organs have already been formed, including the organs of the digestive system, cardiovascular system, and nervous system. During the eighth week, the fetus's internal organs become more structured and start to function. Also, the facial features are more recognizable, including the eyes, ears, and nose. Bones and cartilage begin to form, and the process of ossification begins, although it will not complete until well after birth.
By the end of the eighth week, the fetus will be approximately 1 inch long and weigh less than an ounce. It will start moving, although the mother will not feel it yet. It is not until about 16-22 weeks that the mother feels the baby's first movements, which are commonly referred to as "quickening." Therefore, statement 4 is not true for the eighth week of fetal development.
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Please answer and explain in 10 sentences.
1. How does the appendicular musculature of the chicken
forelimb and hindlimb similar and different to that of other
vertebrate groups.
The appendicular musculature of the chicken forelimb and hindlimb is similar to that of other vertebrate groups in terms of their general anatomical arrangement and function, but there are also some differences.
Similarities:
1.The forelimb and hindlimb of chickens, like other vertebrates, consist of muscles that are responsible for movement and locomotion.
2.Both limbs have muscles that act upon the various joints, such as the shoulder joint and hip joint, to produce flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction movements.
3.Muscles in both the forelimb and hindlimb are organized into compartments or groups based on their specific functions and attachments.
4.The basic muscle types, such as flexors and extensors, are present in both limbs, allowing for coordinated movements.
Differences:
1.The forelimb of chickens is modified for flight, so it contains specific flight-related muscles like the pectoralis major, which is responsible for powering the downstroke of the wing.
2.The hindlimb of chickens is adapted for walking and perching, so it has muscles that aid in these activities, such as the gastrocnemius, which helps with leg extension during walking.
3.The relative size and strength of certain muscles may vary between the forelimb and hindlimb, reflecting their different functional demands.
4.The arrangement and attachment sites of some muscles may differ between the forelimb and hindlimb due to their different roles in movement and support.
5.The forelimb and hindlimb may exhibit variations in muscle proportions and overall muscle mass, reflecting the specific locomotor requirements of the chicken.
In summary, while the appendicular musculature of the chicken forelimb and hindlimb shares similarities with other vertebrate groups in terms of general organization and function, there are distinct differences due to the chicken's flight and walking adaptations. These differences highlight the adaptations and specialization of muscle groups to suit the specific needs and locomotor capabilities of the chicken.
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We discussed fish, amphibian, and mammalian hearts, but didn’t spend much time on reptiles and birds. Please compare and contrast the anatomy of the heart in
a) most reptiles (turtles, snakes, lizards)
b) crocodiles
c) birds
d) mammals
Draw the basic template of dorsal aorta, ventral aorta, and six aortic arches, along with drawings showing the modified patterns of aortic arches in a-d above.
The anatomy of the heart in reptiles, crocodiles, birds, and mammals differ in various aspects. Reptiles, such as turtles, snakes, and lizards, have a three-chambered heart with two atria and one ventricle. The ventricle is partially divided, allowing for some separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Crocodiles, on the other hand, have a four-chambered heart similar to mammals and birds. They have two atria and two completely separated ventricles, ensuring complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
Birds have a unique cardiac anatomy compared to other animals. They possess a four-chambered heart like mammals and crocodiles, but with certain modifications to support their high metabolic demands. Birds have relatively large hearts, with thicker walls in their ventricles. They also have a large and muscular left ventricle, allowing for efficient pumping of oxygenated blood to meet the demands of flight.
Mammals, including humans, have a four-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles. The left and right sides of the heart are completely separated, preventing mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Mammalian hearts are well-adapted for efficient circulation, with a strong left ventricle responsible for pumping oxygenated blood throughout the body.
In terms of the basic template of the dorsal aorta, ventral aorta, and aortic arches, reptiles have a pattern where blood is pumped from the ventricle to the aorta, and then to the systemic circulation. Crocodiles have a similar pattern to mammals, where the ventricles pump blood to the pulmonary and systemic circulations simultaneously. Birds have a more complex pattern with multiple aortic arches, which facilitates their high metabolic rate and the unique demands of flight. Mammals have a simpler pattern, with the ventricles pumping blood to the pulmonary and systemic circulations separately.
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Which of the following passes through the sarcoplasm, causing the sarcoplasmic reticulum to open its "gates"? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Action potential d. ATP
The following statement about sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is true: Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcoplasm, which then binds to troponin and causes muscle contraction. The answer is (B).
Calcium passes through the sarcoplasm, causing the sarcoplasmic reticulum to open its "gates". The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized organelle present in muscle cells.
This organelle stores calcium ions. When the muscle cell is stimulated, a series of events happen and the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. These calcium ions then bind to troponin and cause muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct option is (b) calcium.
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explain the relationship between the hypothalamus and hypophysis
glands. provide one example showing that relationship.
The hypothalamus and the hypophysis glands have an essential relationship. The hypothalamus is responsible for controlling various hormone functions in the human body.
The hypophysis gland, also known as the pituitary gland, is located at the bottom of the hypothalamus and is responsible for secreting many hormones, which are under the control of the hypothalamus.The hypothalamus and the hypophysis gland are connected through a complex system of blood vessels called the hypophyseal portal system.
The hypophyseal portal system is responsible for carrying the hypothalamus' hormones to the hypophysis gland, where they can stimulate the release of other hormones. The hypophysis gland, in turn, secretes hormones that regulate many different functions in the body, including growth, reproduction, and stress response .One example that demonstrates this relationship is the release of growth hormone.
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During the flye exericse, When the hands are being separated,
what type of muscular contraction is taking place at the shoulder
(glenohumeral) joint?
During the flye exercise, the type of muscular contraction taking place at the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint when the hands are being separated is eccentric contraction.
During the flye exercise, the movement involves abduction of the arms away from the midline of the body, which is controlled by the muscles of the shoulder joint. Eccentric contraction occurs when the muscle lengthens while generating tension. In this case, as the hands are being separated, the muscles responsible for shoulder abduction, such as the deltoids and pectoralis major, are contracting eccentrically to control the movement and decelerate the arms. This type of contraction helps in controlling the movement and preventing excessive stress on the joint. Therefore, the answer is ccentric contraction.
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Describe how can a neurotransmitter can be either excitatory or
inhibitory and what molecular mechanism underlies this phenomenon.
Make sure to use an example.
Neurotransmitters can exhibit either excitatory or inhibitory effects on target neurons, influencing the transmission of signals in the nervous system.
The distinction between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmission depends on the receptors that the neurotransmitter binds to and the resulting changes in the postsynaptic membrane potential. For example, gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. When GABA binds to its receptors, usually GABA-A receptors, it opens chloride ion channels, allowing negatively charged chloride ions to enter the neuron.
In contrast, glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that typically acts on glutamate receptors, such as AMPA receptors or NMDA receptors. Activation of these receptors allows positively charged ions, such as sodium or calcium, to enter the neuron, depolarizing the postsynaptic membrane and increasing the likelihood of generating an action potential.
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Describe how fed-batch fermentation can increase the yield of a recombinant protein of your choice. What technologies have been used to successfully purify this recombinant protein and outline the principles of their operation?
Fed-batch fermentation is a batch culture of microorganisms with an additional feeding of a nutrient solution to the culture medium to maintain a constant nutrient concentration.
Fed-batch fermentation can increase the yield of a recombinant protein of your choice in the following ways:i. By maintaining a nutrient level in the growth medium.ii. By extending the logarithmic growth phase of the microorganism.iii. By increasing cell density. All these factors lead to increased productivity. There are various technologies used to purify recombinant proteins. The technologies include but are not limited to: i. Affinity chromatography ii. Ion-exchange chromatography iii.
Hydrophobic interaction chromatography iv. Gel filtration chromatography These technologies are based on the different physical and chemical properties of proteins like molecular weight, charge, hydrophobicity, and specific binding properties. Affinity chromatography Affinity chromatography is a chromatographic method that exploits the unique binding characteristics of proteins. It uses a solid phase consisting of a matrix covalently linked to a specific ligand. When a protein sample is passed over the matrix, the protein will bind to the ligand, while other molecules are washed away.
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An intra-aortic balloon pump device is being applied to a patient in cardiovascular shock. The patient's blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg, and his heart rate is 37 beats per min. The patient's cardiac output has been determined to be 2,8 liters/min. Once the balloon cardiac assist device has been started the patient's systolic blood pressure at the heart drops to 62 mm Hg, the heart rate and cardiac output remain the same. After several hours on the balloon, the systolle pressure is back to 80 mm Hg the heart rate has dropped to 76 beats/min, and the cardiac output has risen to 3.3 liters/min. How much work improvement in mig liters/min) is obtained in cardiac performance considering several hours later and before the balloon is applied Your answer a. 45 b. 64 c. 72
d. 80
e. 56
f. 95
The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is option C: 72. Cardiovascular shock is a medical emergency condition that occurs when the heart is unable to supply enough oxygen-rich blood to the body's vital organs, such as the brain, kidneys, and liver.
The intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is a cardiac assistive device that increases blood flow and improves coronary artery perfusion by reducing left ventricular afterload and increasing cardiac output. It improves the perfusion of the brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs.
Now, let's calculate the work improvement that is obtained in cardiac performance: Initial cardiac output: 2.8 liters/min Final cardiac output: 3.3 liters/min
The difference between initial and final cardiac output:
3.3 – 2.8 = 0.5 liters/min = 500 mL/min (because 1 L = 1000 mL)
Since was several hours after the balloon was applied, the calculation of cardiac output will take place using the formula for work improvement:
Work improvement = (Final cardiac output – Initial cardiac output) × heart retinal cardiac output is 3.3 liters/min,
and the initial cardiac output is 2.8 liters/min,
so the difference between them is 0.5 liters/min.
The heart rate before was 37 beats/min and 76 beats/min later, so the difference is 39 beats/min.
Work improvement = (0.5 liters/min) × (39 beats/min)Work improvement = 19.5 liters/min
beat/min = 19500 mL/min-beat/min = 19500/1000 = 19.5 mig/min-beat/min,
The work improvement that is obtained in cardiac performance several hours after the balloon is applied is 19.5 mg/min. Therefore, the correct option is C: 72.
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Fluid excess can happen when large amounts of _________ and ________ are lost but just replaced by plain water. a. BPH, bicarbonate ions b. salt substitute, lipid molecules c. water, sodium d. hemoglobin, carbon dioxide
Neurons supplying smooth muscle a. display swellings called varicosities b. display receptors only on the dendrites c. create precise neuromuscular junctions with each myocyte d. secrete histamine
During fat absorption, where are the triglycerides combined with phospholipids and cholesterol? a. in the rough endoplasmic reticulum b. in the Golgi apparatus c. in a temporary vesicle d. in the mitochondria
c) Fluid excess can happen when large amounts of water and sodium are lost but just replaced by plain water.
Fluid excess can occur when large amounts of water and sodium are lost but only replaced by plain water. In the body, water, and sodium play crucial roles in maintaining fluid balance. When excessive water is lost through processes such as sweating or excessive urination, and only plain water is consumed without adequate sodium intake, it can lead to an imbalance in fluid levels. Water is an essential component for hydration, while sodium is an electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance and osmotic pressure. When there is an insufficient intake of sodium to match water loss, the body may retain excess water, resulting in fluid excess or hyponatremia. To maintain fluid balance, it is important to replace not only water but also electrolytes like sodium when there is a significant fluid loss to avoid imbalances and promote proper hydration.
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QUESTION 2 3. Identify the muscle indicated by the black arrow. Identify one synergist of muscle indicated by the red arrow. 4.
The muscle indicated by the black arrow is the rectus femoris muscle. The rectus femoris muscle is one of the four quadriceps muscles that extends knee and hip.
It is the only quadriceps muscle that crosses the hip joint, and so it has a dual function, acting as both a knee extensor and a hip flexor. The rectus femoris arises from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and the groove of the acetabulum in the pelvic bone of the hip. It merges with the other three quadriceps muscles — the vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius — to attach to the patella via the quadriceps tendon.
This tendon then attaches to the tibia through the patellar ligament, where it helps to maintain the patella in place and helps to stabilize the knee joint.Synergists muscles are the muscles that work together to move the body part in the same direction. The synergist of the muscle indicated by the red arrow is iliopsoas. It is a group of muscles that work together to flex the hip and they are the iliacus and the psoas major. These two muscles have different origins but they both merge at the level of the hip to form the iliopsoas.
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Fil in the bianks of the following sentences. The dartos and cremaster muscles heip to maintain Ideal testicular temperature. The idealtemperature is sightty ____ than body temperature. If the outside tenperature is too cold, the dartos and cremaster will _____ Which will cause the testes to move the body ____ If the outside temperature is too warm, the dartos and cramaster will which will cause the testes to move ____ the body.
The dartos and cremaster muscles help to maintain ideal testicular temperature. The ideal temperature is slightly lower than the body temperature. If the outside temperature is too cold, the dartos and cremaster will contract, which will cause the testes to move the body closer, if the outside temperature is too warm, the dartos and cremaster will relax, which will cause the testes to move away from the body.
Both the cremaster and dartos muscles are vital for regulating the temperature of the testes and keeping them at the appropriate temperature. This is important because if the testes become too cold or too warm, it can damage or kill sperm, which can result in infertility.
It's important to note that temperature regulation is not the only factor that affects sperm production. Hormones, nutrition, and overall health are all essential to healthy sperm production and fertility. In summary, the dartos and cremaster muscles play a vital role in maintaining ideal testicular temperature, which is critical for healthy sperm production.
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QUESTION 1 Good laboratory work requires_ advanced intelligence sloppy technique complete ignorance advanced preparation 0000 QUESTION 2 What does a pre-lab briefing provide (choose multiple answers)? descriptions of safety precautions descriptions of changes in the protocol instructions on the use of instruments summary of data analysis from the lab 0000 on the part of all that are present. QUESTION 3 What are the keys to working safely in the laboratory? sloppiness organization dishonesty. creativity
Good laboratory work requires advanced preparation. Advanced preparation includes reading the laboratory manual before going to the laboratory.
It is important to understand the laboratory objectives and procedures to follow in order to obtain accurate results and prevent accidents or mistakes. Proper preparation of materials and equipment is also an important aspect of good laboratory work. A pre-lab briefing provides descriptions of safety precautions, descriptions of changes in the protocol, and instructions on the use of instruments. A pre-lab briefing is an important part of laboratory work. It provides essential information that can help to improve the accuracy and safety of the experiment.
During a pre-lab briefing, the instructor typically provides descriptions of safety precautions to follow, such as the use of protective equipment or procedures to follow in case of an accident. The instructor may also provide descriptions of changes in the protocol, such as deviations from the laboratory manual. Instructions on the use of instruments may also be provided to ensure proper use of the equipment.
The keys to working safely in the laboratory are organization and creativity. The keys to working safely in the laboratory are organization and creativity. Organization involves proper preparation of materials and equipment, following laboratory procedures and safety protocols, and keeping a clean and orderly work environment.
Creativity involves being able to problem-solve and think critically when unexpected situations arise, such as equipment malfunctions or experimental deviations. It is important to be able to adapt to new situations and think creatively to find solutions to problems that may arise during laboratory work. Sloppiness and dishonesty are not keys to working safely in the laboratory. In fact, they can lead to accidents, errors, and inaccuracies in experimental results.
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4. Compare/contrast the roles of chylomicrons, VLDLs, LDLs, and HDLs. 5. What factors determine basal metabolic rate? 6. What is the difference between hunger and appetite? What are the effects of emotions upon appetite?
4. Chylomicrons, VLDLs, LDLs, and HDLs are different types of lipoproteins that transport lipids in the blood. .5.The factors determine basal metabolic rate are age, gender, body size and composition, genetics, and hormonal factors. 6. The difference between hunger and appetite is hunger controlled by the hypothalamus and appetite influenced by social and cultural factors. 7. The effects of emotions upon appetite is depending on the individual and the situation it can increase or decrease appetite.
Chylomicrons transport dietary triglycerides and cholesterol from the small intestine to adipose tissue and the liver. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) transport endogenously synthesized triglycerides from the liver to adipose tissue. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) deliver cholesterol to cells throughout the body. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) remove cholesterol from cells and return it to the liver.
Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required by the body to maintain normal physiological functions while at rest. BMR is influenced by a number of factors, including age, gender, body size and composition, genetics, and hormonal factors. For example, younger people tend to have higher BMRs than older people, men tend to have higher BMRs than women, and people with more muscle mass tend to have higher BMRs than people with less muscle mass.
Hunger is the physiological need for food, while appetite is the psychological desire for food. Hunger is controlled by the hypothalamus, which signals the body to release ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. Appetite, on the other hand, is influenced by a variety of factors, including social and cultural factors, as well as emotions. Emotions can either increase or decrease appetite depending on the individual and the situation. For example, stress can increase appetite in some people, while causing a loss of appetite in others and similarly, sadness can lead to overeating in some people, while causing a loss of appetite in others.
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Explain the corrective treatment for the deficiency of two nutrients and how the treatments relieves the symptoms of each deficiency.
The deficiency of two nutrients can be treated with the help of some corrective measures, which is by increasing the intake of calcium and iron.
1) Calcium is a mineral that is essential for maintaining strong and healthy bones. Calcium deficiency can lead to weakened bones and increased risk of fractures.Treatment for calcium deficiency involves taking calcium supplements, eating calcium-rich foods, and increasing vitamin D intake. These treatments can help relieve the symptoms of calcium deficiency and improve bone health.
2) Iron is an essential nutrient that helps produce red blood cells, which carry oxygen throughout the body. Iron deficiency can lead to anemia, which can cause fatigue, weakness, and other symptoms. Treatment for iron deficiency involves taking iron supplements, increasing iron-rich foods in the diet, and consuming foods that enhance iron absorption.
These treatments can help relieve the symptoms of iron deficiency and improve overall health. Corrective treatment for calcium deficiency can relieve symptoms by increasing the amount of calcium in the body. Calcium supplements can help restore calcium levels in the body, while vitamin D supplements can help the body absorb calcium better. Eating calcium-rich foods can also help increase calcium levels and relieve symptoms.
Corrective treatment for iron deficiency can relieve symptoms by increasing the amount of iron in the body. Iron supplements can help restore iron levels in the body and reduce symptoms of anemia. Consuming iron-rich foods, such as red meat and leafy greens, can also help increase iron levels and relieve symptoms. Additionally, consuming vitamin C-rich foods can help enhance iron absorption.
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Mary, a 13-month-old baby, was taken to the ER for vomiting for the past 3 days. Upon examination Mary was irritable, and tachycardic. Her fontanelle was depressed and her oral mucosa was dry. Blood tests show the following: Blood pH: 7.56, K+: 3.31 meq/(low). Na 157 mear high Mary was admitted. She was given an oral electrolyte solution. After an hour Mary was still vomiting. The doctors decided to administer intravenous fluids a. List the possible signs of dehydration in a baby Why is Mary's age a concern? b. Based on the findings of the lab tests, explain why Mary's life could be at risk c.Explain why the doctors gave Mary initially an electrolyte solution rich in sodium and glucose and not just plain water.
After an hour Mary was still vomiting. The doctors decided to administer intravenous fluids:
a. Possible indicators of infant dehydration include:
reduced urine production or urine that is darker in color.
dry lips and mouth
Sunken fontanelles (the baby's head's soft patches)
crying but not shedding any tears
oral mucosa (inside the mouth) that is dry or sticky.
Easily irritated or becoming fussier
b. Mary's age is a problem because young children and newborns are more prone to dehydration. They can have rapid fluid loss and imbalances since they have lower body masses and higher metabolic rates.
c. According to the results of the laboratory tests, Mary may have a disorder called metabolic alkalosis that puts her life in danger. An imbalance in the body's acid-base levels, alkalosis, is indicated by blood pH of 7.56, which is alkalosis.
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Culturing microbes from the throat.
1a. Why would it be important to distinguish the normal
microbiota from non-resident microbes in a specific body
location?
2a. Why is the sampling technique crucial
1. Distinguishing normal microbiota from non-resident microbes is important to monitor health and detect potential infections.
2. Proper sampling technique ensures accurate representation of throat microbes and minimizes contamination.
1. Distinguishing the normal microbiota from non-resident microbes in a specific body location is important because the normal microbiota play a vital role in maintaining health and preventing the overgrowth or colonization of potentially harmful pathogens. Identifying the resident microbes helps establish a baseline and allows for the detection of any changes or deviations that could indicate an infection or disease.
2. The sampling technique is crucial in culturing microbes from the throat because it ensures the collection of a representative sample that accurately reflects the microbial population present. The proper technique helps minimize contamination from external sources and maximizes the chances of isolating and identifying the target microbes. It also allows for the evaluation of the microbial composition and any potential pathogens present in the throat.
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What structure does the proximal tubule lead to?
O distal tubule
O intermediate tubule
O glomerulus
O renal corpuscle
O collecting tubule
QUESTION 56
Which of the following are epithelial cells?
O gustatory cells
O Purkinje cells
O pericytes
O goblet cells
O olfactory cells
QUESTION 57
Which of the following lists have all structures that match with the corresponding structure underlined at the end?
O angiotensin I, anglotensin Il, renin, juxtaglomerular cells : liver
O stratum functionalis, stratum vasculare, internal os : oviduct
O axoneme, microtubules, acrosome, flagellum : ovum
O medullipin I, medullipin Il, antihypertensive action : renal medulla
O crystalloid of Charcot-Bottcher, crystals of Rienke, tunica albugenia : prostate
QUESTION 58
Which of the following is true about the renal medullary interstitium and the counter current multiplier mechanism?
O medullary interstitium maintains a relatively very low concentration of NaCl
O descending intermediate tubule is freely permeable to solutes and impermeable to water
O ascending intermediate tubule Is permeable to water and actively retains Nacl
O collecting duct in deep medulla are impermeable to urea
O vasa recta functions as counter current exchangers
QUESTION 59
Which of the following lists have cells or products that match with the corresponding cells or products underlined at the end?
O alpha, beta and delta cells : cells of exocrine pancreas
O follicular cells, paratollicular cells, calcitonin, thyroglobulin : cells of parathyroid gland
O hormone, Intracellular receptor, binding with DNA : testosterone
O chief cells, oxyphil cells, parathyroid hormane t cells of pineal gland
O epinephrine, norepinephrine, chromaffin cells : sells In adrenal zona reticularis
Question 56: The proximal tubule leads to the distal tubule.
Question 57: The epithelial cells are gustatory cells, olfactory cells, and goblet cells.
Question 58: The true statement is that vasa recta functions as counter-current exchangers.
Question 59: The cells or products that match are alpha, beta and delta cells: cells of the exocrine pancreas.
The proximal tubule leads to the distal tubule, which is the correct answer to question 56. Epithelial cells are found in various tissues and their function is to protect and line the surfaces of organs and structures.
In question 57, the epithelial cells mentioned are gustatory cells, olfactory cells, and goblet cells.
The vasa recta, which are specialized capillaries in the kidney, function as counter-current exchangers, allowing for the exchange of substances between the blood vessels and the surrounding renal medullary interstitium, as stated in question 58.
Lastly, in question 59, the cells or products that match are alpha, beta, and delta cells, which are found in the exocrine pancreas.
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18. Assuming that brown eyees (B) is dominant to blue eyee (b): you come across a situation where all babies produced from one mating event have brown eyee. If we know one parent has the allele combonation (bb), what must be the allele comibination of their mate?
A. Bb
B. BB
C. bb
28. Assuming that brown eyes (B) is dominant to blue eyes (b) which of the following combinantions of alleles would be present in a blue-eyed individual?
A. Bb
B. BB
C. bb
37. glomerular filtration rate is regulated by many mechanics, two of the mechanisms affect GFR by constricting the afferent arteriole. What effect does constricting the afferent arteriole have on GFR?
A. Decreases
B. stays the same
C. Increases
The allele combination of the mate must be Bb.
When all babies produced from a mating event have brown eyes, and one parent has the allele combination (bb), the other parent must have the allele combination Bb. This is because brown eyes (B) is dominant to blue eyes (b).
In order for all babies to have brown eyes, they must receive the dominant allele (B) from one parent. Since the other parent has the genotype bb, they can only pass on the recessive allele (b) to their offspring.
In this scenario, the parent with the genotype bb does not possess the dominant brown eye allele (B), so they cannot pass it on to their offspring. The allele combination of Bb in the other parent ensures that the offspring will receive the dominant allele for brown eyes, resulting in all babies having brown eyes.
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Brandon Williamson is walking on a treadmill at 3.6 mph for 30 minutes. His current bodyweight is 187lb. His absolute VO2 level at this intensity is 2.3 L/min.
a. Relative VO2 in ml/kg/min
b. MET level
c. Grade of treadmill
d. Kilocalories per minute
e. Total caloric expenditure
Brandon Williamson is walking on a treadmill at 3.6 mph for 30 minutes. His current bodyweight is 187lb. His absolute VO₂ level at this intensity is 2.3 L/min.
a. Relative VO₂ in ml/kg/min = 0.027 L/kg/min
b. MET level = 7.7 METs
c. Grade of treadmill = not given in the problem
d. Kilocalories per minute = 0.968 kcal/min
e. Total caloric expenditure = 29.04 kcal
The formula for relative VO₂ is:
Relative VO₂ = Absolute VO₂ / body weight in kg
For the purpose of this problem, we need to convert the body weight of Brandon Williamson from lb to kg.1 lb = 0.45 kg Therefore, the body weight of Brandon Williamson in kg = 187 lb x 0.45 = 84.15 kg
Now we can calculate the relative VO₂: Relative VO₂ = 2.3 L/min / 84.15 kg= 0.027 L/kg/min. One MET is the resting metabolic rate, which is equivalent to 3.5 ml of oxygen uptake per kilogram of body weight per minute.
MET level = Relative VO₂ / 3.5= 0.027 L/kg/min / 3.5 ml/kg/min= 7.7 METsc.
Therefore, the final answers are:
a. Relative VO₂ in ml/kg/min = 0.027 L/kg/min
b. MET level = 7.7 METs
c. Grade of treadmill = not given in the problem
d. Kilocalories per minute = 0.968 kcal/min
e. Total caloric expenditure = 29.04 kcal
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1. compare the three levels of function of dental practice management software and discuss their application
Dental practice management software operates at three levels of function: administrative, clinical, and financial.
Administrative Function: At the administrative level, dental practice management software facilitates tasks related to appointment scheduling, patient registration, insurance verification, and billing. It streamlines front desk operations, improves patient communication, and helps manage patient records efficiently. Administrative features also include generating reports and managing inventory. This level of function enhances practice organization, workflow, and patient management.Clinical Function: The clinical level of dental practice management software focuses on supporting clinical workflows and patient care. It enables practitioners to document patient treatment plans, chart dental conditions, and track treatment progress. Clinical features may include digital imaging integration, treatment notes, prescription management, and communication tools for collaboration with other healthcare providers. This level of function enhances the clinical efficiency, accuracy, and quality of care provided to patients.Financial Function: The financial level of dental practice management software encompasses tasks related to financial management and accounting. It includes features for billing, insurance claims processing, payment tracking, and financial reporting. This level of function helps streamline revenue cycles, monitor practice finances, and ensure accurate and timely reimbursements. Financial features also support managing patient balances, creating payment plans, and analyzing practice profitability.By operating at these three levels of function, dental practice management software optimizes administrative tasks, supports clinical workflows, and facilitates financial management within dental practices. Its comprehensive application improves overall practice efficiency, productivity, and patient satisfaction.
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Draw the voltage changes you expect (graph Vm vs. time) to occur after you inject a current to bring a neuron up to what normally be threshold, but in your case voltage-gated Na+ channels open slower than voltage-gated K+ channels. Explain your diagram in a few sentences.
In the given scenario where voltage-gated Na+ channels open slower than voltage-gated K+ channels, the expected graph of Vm (membrane voltage) versus time would exhibit a different pattern compared to the typical neuronal threshold response.
What is the expected voltage response (Vm vs. time) when voltage-gated Na+ channels open slower than voltage-gated K+ channels after injecting a current to bring a neuron up to threshold?
Initially, upon injecting the current, the membrane voltage (Vm) would start to increase gradually due to the activation of voltage-gated K+ channels, which have a slower response compared to the Na+ channels.
As the K+ channels open, they allow K+ ions to move out of the cell, leading to an outward current and causing a slight decrease in Vm.
However, since the voltage-gated Na+ channels open slower in this case, the rapid influx of Na+ ions that usually occurs during the threshold phase would be delayed.
As a result, the membrane voltage would continue to rise gradually until the slower-opening Na+ channels eventually reach their activation state. Once the Na+ channels open, there would be a rapid depolarization phase where Vm sharply increases due to the influx of Na+ ions.
Overall, the graph of Vm versus time would show a gradual increase followed by a rapid depolarization, reflecting the delayed opening of Na+ channels relative to the slower-opening K+ channels.
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Damage to specific regions of the cerebral cortex, such as through a stroke, can result in specific losses or function. Take a look at the pictures below. Which lobe is affected by the stroke? Next, Name the typical signs and symptoms of a stroke?
The lobe that is affected by the stroke is the temporal lobe. The typical signs and symptoms of a stroke are numbness, weakness, or paralysis of the face, arm, or leg, particularly on one side of the body.
What is a stroke?A stroke is a disease that occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted. When this happens, brain cells do not receive enough oxygen or nutrients and begin to die. Stroke is a leading cause of death and disability worldwide. There are two types of strokes: Ischemic stroke- It is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain. Hemorrhagic stroke- It occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures or leaks.
The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain. It is responsible for a variety of functions, including movement, sensation, perception, and cognition. It is divided into four main lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe. The damage to specific regions of the cerebral cortex, such as through a stroke, can result in specific losses of function.
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Lectures 16 – Cardiovascular System - Heart:
What are the 4 chambers of the heart? Slide 4
Know the 4 valves of the heart. Slide 5
Know the main blood vessels entering and exiting the heart. Slide 6
You should know which chambers these vessels exit and enter. What determines whether a blood vessel is called an artery or a vein?
Which side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs (pulmonary circuit)? Which side pumps blood to the rest of the body (systemic circuit)? Slide 9-12
What’s the definition of cardiac output? What’s the formula to calculate cardiac output? Slide 14
If given stroke volume and heart rate, be able to calculate cardiac output.
What’s stroke volume? What’s the formula to calculate stroke volume? Slide 26-30
Understand how the Autonomic nervous system affects cardiac output. Slide 19-22
What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on heart rate? Stroke volume? Which neurotransmitter is involved in this response?
What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on heart rate? Which neurotransmitter is involved in this response?
Cardiac Cycle (for a refresher watch the video on Slide 31)
What is happening during atrial diastole? Atrial systole? Ventricular diastole? Ventricular systole?
Understand that a pressure gradient is what allows the blood to flow from one chamber to another. For example, once pressure in the atria is higher than the pressure in the ventricles, blood will flow from the atria into the ventricle.
Clinical Connections Slide 35-41
What is myocardial ischemia? How does this differ from myocardial infarction?
What is the difference between ischemia and hypoxia?
What is the difference between valve insufficiency vs valve stenosis?
What is auscultation? What does the sound "Lubb" refer to? How about "Dubb"
What is congestive heart failure? What occurs if the left-side of the heart fails first? What occurs if the right-side of the heart fails first?
-The 4 chambers of the heart are the left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, and right ventricle.
-The 4 valves of the heart are the tricuspid valve, mitral (bicuspid) valve, pulmonary valve, and aortic valve.
-The main blood vessels entering the heart are the superior and inferior vena cava (entering the right atrium) and the pulmonary veins (entering the left atrium).
-Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, while veins carry deoxygenated blood toward the heart.
-The right side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs (pulmonary circuit), and the left side pumps blood to the rest of the body (systemic circuit).
-Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. The formula is cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate.
-Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected by the heart with each contraction.
-The sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and stroke volume, involving the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
-The parasympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate, involving the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
-During atrial diastole, the atria are relaxed and filled with blood. Atrial systole is the contraction of the atria, ventricular diastole is the relaxation of the ventricles, and ventricular systole is the contraction of the ventricles.
-A pressure gradient allows blood to flow from one chamber to another based on differences in pressure.
-Myocardial ischemia is reduced blood flow to the heart, while myocardial infarction refers to tissue death.
-Ischemia refers to inadequate blood supply, while hypoxia refers specifically to low oxygen levels. Valve insufficiency is improper closure causing blood leakage, while valve stenosis is the narrowing or constriction of a valve.
-Auscultation is listening to body sounds, with "Lubb" referring to the first heart sound (AV valve closure) and "Dubb" to the second heart sound (semilunar valve closure).
-Congestive heart failure is the heart's inability to pump effectively, with left-side failure causing pulmonary congestion and right-side failure causing systemic congestion.
The 4 valves of the heart are:
- Tricuspid valve (between the right atrium and right ventricle)
- Pulmonary valve (between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery)
- Mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve (between the left atrium and left ventricle)
- Aortic valve (between the left ventricle and aorta)
The main blood vessels entering and exiting the heart are:
- Superior and inferior vena cava (entering the right atrium)
- Pulmonary veins (entering the left atrium)
- Pulmonary artery (exiting the right ventricle)
- Aorta (exiting the left ventricle)
Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the tissues, while veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. The distinction is based on the direction of blood flow and oxygenation levels.
Stroke Volume = End Diastolic Volume (EDV) - End Systolic Volume (ESV)
The sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and stroke volume. It releases norepinephrine (noradrenaline) as the neurotransmitter involved in this response.
- During atrial diastole, the atria are relaxed and filled with blood.
- During atrial systole, the atria contract to push blood into the ventricles.
- During ventricular diastole, the ventricles are relaxed and filling with blood.
- During ventricular systole, the ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart.
Valve insufficiency (regurgitation) occurs when a valve doesn't close properly, causing blood to leak backward. Valve stenosis occurs when a valve becomes narrowed or constricted, restricting the blood flow through the valve.
Auscultation is the process of listening to internal body sounds using a stethoscope. The sound "Lubb" refers to the first heart sound (S1), which is caused by the closure of the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral/bicuspid valves). The sound "Dubb" refers to the second heart sound (S2), which is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic valves).
Congestive heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, resulting in fluid accumulation and congestion in various parts of the body. If the left side of the heart fails first, it can lead to pulmonary congestion and fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing shortness of breath and pulmonary edema. If the right side of the heart fails first, it can cause systemic congestion, leading to fluid accumulation in the peripheral tissues, abdomen, and lower extremities.
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Chronic respiratory diseases (CRDs) are diseases of the airways and other structures of the lung. Some of the most common are chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, occupational lung diseases. Please give overview about risk factors of CRD and methods of prevention of CRD in KSA?
Chronic respiratory diseases (CRDs) are diseases of the airways and other structures of the lung.
Some of the most common are chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, and occupational lung diseases. The risk factors of CRDs and methods of prevention of CRD in KSA are given below: Risk factors of CRDs include:
Smoking: Smoking is the primary risk factor for CRDs. Smokers are 13 times more likely to die from COPD than non-smokers.
Air pollution: Prolonged exposure to indoor and outdoor air pollution can also cause CRDs.
Occupational exposures: Workers who are exposed to dust, chemicals, and fumes are at risk of developing occupational lung diseases.
Genetics: Certain genetic factors have been linked to the development of CRDs.Age: The risk of developing CRDs increases with age.
Methods of prevention of CRDs in KSA: Avoid smoking: Smoking is the primary risk factor for CRDs, so avoiding smoking and exposure to secondhand smoke is the most effective way to prevent CRDs.
Avoid air pollution: Avoid exposure to indoor and outdoor air pollution as much as possible.
Using Personal Protective Equipment (PPE): Workers who are exposed to dust, chemicals, and fumes should use appropriate PPE to protect themselves from occupational lung diseases
.Improving indoor air quality: Avoid the use of indoor pollutants, including wood-burning stoves and fireplaces, aerosol sprays, and cleaning products.
Improve ventilation: Proper ventilation can reduce the amount of indoor air pollution.
Regular exercise: Regular physical activity can help improve lung function and reduce the risk of CRDs.
Avoid exposure to infections: Practice good hygiene to avoid respiratory infections, such as washing hands regularly, avoiding close contact with sick people, and getting vaccinated against flu and pneumonia.
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of urine a. unsterile b. contains urochrome c. pH of 6 d. aromatic
Option C: pH of 6 is not a characteristic of urine, because urine is typically slightly acidic, with a pH range of 3.0 to 5.0.
Urine can range in color from pale yellow to amber, depending on factors such as hydration levels, diet, and certain medications or medical conditions. The pigment responsible for the yellow color of urine is called urochrome.
Water, waste materials, and different dissolved compounds make up the majority of urine. It has metabolic waste materials like urea, creatinine, and uric acid in it. It also contains various components that may be present based on a person's health and diet, including electrolytes like sodium, potassium, and chloride ions.
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Which of the following is true about the cerebellum?
a. It is part of the immune system
b. It contains the midbrain
c. It’s near the front of the brain
d. It has a role in posture
The statement that is true about the cerebellum is: d. It has a role in posture.
The cerebellum is a structure located at the back of the brain, below the occipital lobes and behind the brainstem. While it is not near the front of the brain (option c), it is essential for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining balance, and controlling posture.
The cerebellum receives sensory information from various parts of the body, including the inner ear, muscles, and joints. It integrates this information with motor commands from the brain to regulate muscle tone, coordination, and balance. It plays a crucial role in fine motor skills, such as writing, playing musical instruments, and athletic activities that require precise movements. In addition to its role in motor control, the cerebellum also contributes to cognitive functions such as attention, language, and problem-solving.
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The human catalase functions best at a ph of 7 and the stomach enzyme pepsin functions at a ph of 2. why the difference?
The human catalase and the stomach enzyme pepsin have different optimum pH ranges because each enzyme has evolved to work best under different environmental conditions.
The human catalase enzyme is found mainly in the liver and other organs, and it works best at a pH of 7, which is close to the neutral pH of blood. Catalase plays a vital role in breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen, which is an essential reaction for cells because hydrogen peroxide is a toxic byproduct of cellular respiration. Since blood has a pH of 7.4, it makes sense that catalase would function best at a pH close to this value, allowing it to efficiently detoxify cells without causing any damage.
The stomach enzyme pepsin, on the other hand, is found primarily in the stomach, where it helps to break down proteins into smaller peptides. The stomach is an acidic environment, with a pH of 2, due to the production of hydrochloric acid. Pepsin is adapted to work best at a low pH, allowing it to function effectively in the stomach's harsh environment and catalyze the hydrolysis of proteins. Therefore, the human catalase functions best at a pH of 7, while the stomach enzyme pepsin functions at a pH of 2 due to their different environmental requirements.
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yelshanskaya, m., sobolevsky, a.i. structural insights into function of ionotropic glutamate receptors. submitted.
Yelshanskaya and Sobolevsky conducted a research study on the ionotropic glutamate receptors in order to gain structural insights into their function.
The study conducted by Yelshanskaya and Sobolevsky was aimed at gaining structural insights into the function of ionotropic glutamate receptors. The researchers utilized X-ray crystallography and cryo-electron microscopy to determine the structure of these receptors. The study found that the ionotropic glutamate receptors are heterotetramers, consisting of four subunits that form a ligand-gated ion channel.
The subunits were found to be composed of three distinct domains: the extracellular domain, the transmembrane domain, and the intracellular domain. The extracellular domain was responsible for the binding of glutamate, while the transmembrane domain formed the ion channel. The intracellular domain played a role in the activation and regulation of the receptor. These structural insights provided a better understanding of the function of ionotropic glutamate receptors and may have implications for the development of new drugs for neurological disorders.
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Complete question is:
Yelshanskaya, m., Sobolevsky, a.i. structural insights into the function of ionotropic glutamate receptors. submitted.
1. Write a short description on ALL of the following: a) Lock and key theory for the enzyme-substrate complex and the different approaches to derive the rate equation of enzyme reaction. (Hint: provide the drawing of the mechanism involved) b) Mechanism of an enzyme inhibition and the associated plots.
a) Short description of lock and key theory for enzyme-substrate complex: In the lock and key model of enzyme-substrate interactions, the enzyme's active site is precisely complementary to the substrate's shape.
b) Short description of the mechanism of enzyme inhibition and the associated plots: There are three types of reversible enzyme inhibition: competitive, noncompetitive, and uncompetitive. A substrate and an inhibitor bind to an enzyme in competitive inhibition.
The enzyme-substrate complex can only form if the substrate is in a shape that fits into the enzyme's active site. The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction can be calculated using various approaches. One method is to utilize the Michaelis-Menten equation, which relates the rate of the reaction to the substrate concentration. Another method is to use the Briggs-Haldane equation, which is derived from the Michaelis-Menten equation and is applicable in cases where the substrate concentration is much higher than the enzyme concentration.
There are three types of reversible enzyme inhibition: competitive, noncompetitive, and uncompetitive. A substrate and an inhibitor bind to an enzyme in competitive inhibition. Competitive inhibition is reversible because the inhibitor can be displaced by increasing the substrate concentration. In noncompetitive inhibition, an inhibitor binds to the enzyme but not at the active site. In this case, substrate concentration does not alter the amount of inhibition.
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An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is associated with ________.
Group of answer choices
A. a change in potassium ion permeability
B. hyperpolarization
C. depolarization
D. lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
E. repolarization
An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is associated with depolarization. The answer is (C).
A postsynaptic potential (PSP) is a graded potential in the receiving neuron that is evoked by the arrival of a neurotransmitter at a chemical synapse. When the potential is depolarizing and makes the neuron more likely to fire, it is called an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP). Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) result from an influx of positively charged ions (usually Na+ or Ca2+) into the neuron or an outflow of negatively charged ions (usually Cl–).
As a result, EPSPs are depolarizing events that boost the likelihood of an action potential being generated in the neuron. The arrival of an action potential at a presynaptic terminal causes a rise in intracellular calcium ion concentration, which induces the synaptic vesicles in the presynaptic terminal to exocytose their neurotransmitter content. Therefore, the answer is (C).
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