Identifying a problem that potential customers have may lead to a(n) market niche that has not yet been served, potential improvement in an existing product, opportunity for a breakthrough product or process. Option d is the correct option.
Identifying a problem that potential customers have allows you to gain an understanding of their needs, wants, and desires. This knowledge can then be used to create a market niche that serves those needs and desires. This niche could be a product or service that has not yet been offered, or the modification or improvement of an existing product or service to make it better suited for a particular customer base.
Additionally, this understanding of customer needs can provide an opportunity to create a revolutionary product or process that has not been seen before, revolutionizing the market and providing a competitive advantage. Option d is the correct option.
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The complete question is:
Identifying a problem that potential customers have may lead to a(n) question 1 options:
a) market niche that has not yet been served
b) potential improvement in an existing product.
c) opportunity for a breakthrough product or process.
d) all of these are correct.
e) none of these are correct.
a popular sports shoe brand has introduced a new product for people over the age of 65 who enjoy an active life and have an above-average level of discretionary income. this segment of people form the of the shoe brand. group of answer choices product concept opinion leaders equity distribution channel values
The Target market is the group of people who are most likely to buy a specific product or service. This is option C, the target market.
The Target market, also known as the available request served, is the group of guests within the available request served by the reality to which the reality directs its marketing sweats and coffers. The target request is a subset of the overall request for a product or service.
It's important for companies to understand their target request, as members of this group are more likely to buy and recommend their products, which increases deals.
Question
The well-known sports shoe brand has launched a new product for those over the age of 65 who lead active lives and have over-average disposable income. This person member represents a shoe brand.
A) Equity
B) Channel of distribution
C) Target Market
d) values
e) product conception
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item 9 behavioral controls involve the appropriate balance and alignment among the culture, rewards, and boundaries of a firm. group startstrue or false
This statement is true because behavioral controls are defined as the strategies, policies, and procedures that a business puts in place to regulate and direct the behavior of its employees.
Behavioral controls are utilized by organizations to help ensure that all employees act in a manner that is consistent with the company's objectives, values, and expectations. Behavioral controls are divided into three categories: culture, rewards, and boundaries.The appropriate balance and alignment among the culture, rewards, and boundaries of a firm is required for effective behavioral controls. The culture of a business encompasses the values, beliefs, and behavioral norms that guide employee behavior.
A company's rewards system is intended to recognize and reward employee contributions and accomplishments that are aligned with the company's goals and objectives.Boundaries are implemented by firms to keep employees from breaking the law, engaging in unethical conduct, or making poor business judgments that might put the firm's reputation or financial health at risk.
In conclusion, the above statement regarding the appropriateness and alignment among the culture, rewards, and boundaries of a firm is true. Behavioral controls, on the other hand, are the policies, strategies, and processes that a firm establishes to direct and regulate employee behavior.Therefore the statment is true.
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risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. this risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future. reinvestment rate risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. this risk is obviously high on callable bonds. it is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon , which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. longer maturity bonds have high reinvestment rate risk but low exchange rate risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment rate risk and a lower level of exchange rate risk. to account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration , which is the bond's sensitivity to interest rates.
Bond risk includes interest rate risk and reinvestment rate risk, which vary based on bond maturity, coupon, and an investor's investment horizon. Duration measures bond sensitivity to interest rates.
Bond investors are exposed to two major risks: interest rate risk and redemption rate risk. The chance that the value of a bond will fall due to a rise in interest rates is referred to as interest rate risk. Bonds with extended maturities are more vulnerable to this danger and reinvestment rate risk, on the other hand, alludes to the risk that a drop in interest rates will result in a drop in bond portfolio revenue.
Callable bonds and short-term bonds are more vulnerable to this danger. Which sort of risk is more important is determined by the investor's financial horizon. Duration, which gauges a bond's susceptibility to interest rates, is a popular metric for accounting for both expiration and coupon impacts.
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when establishing a cert, who should the cert sponsor coordinate with to integrate with emergency management? a. the local emergency manager and the red cross b. local emergency managers and fema c. local emergency management personnel d. local, regional, and state emergency managers
The Community Emergency Response Team( CERT) program is each- threat, each- threat training. It's option B, original exigency directors, and FEMA.
Your CERT guarantor should coordinate with original, indigenous, and public exigency directors regarding your CERT platoon's capabilities, locales, and other applicable information, and include your CERT in your indigenous exigency operation plans.
The Community Crisis Response Team( CERT) program trains levies on how to prepare for disasters that may do where they live. The CERT trains levy in introductory disaster response chops similar to fire safety, light hunt, and rescue.
The CERT program can support and enhance being openings, and CERT levies can share in sweats to increase readiness and adaptability in the plant and community.
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which of the following is not a characteristic of a cap-and-trade program? group of answer choices a limit or cap on emissions of a pollutant is established none of the choices is correct allowances can be traded actual emissions are measured and penalties are assessed if targets are missed flag question: question 3
The statement which is not a characteristic is d. A cap-and-trade program for greenhouse gas emissions would increase the cost of using fossil fuels.
A cap-and-trade program is a market-based strategy for pollution reduction where in the overall quantity of pollutants of a pollutant, such as greenhouse gases, is limited or capped. Companies are required to possess permits equivalent to their actual emissions, which are monitored on a regular basis. Since these allowances are tradeable, businesses that can decrease emissions more affordably can market their excess allowances to those who must pay more.
By allowing firms to trade allowances, the program ensures emissions are decreased at the lowest cost possible. The program may indirectly affect the cost of electricity and other products that use fossil fuels as inputs, but it may not always explicitly increase the cost of using fossil fuels.
Complete Question:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a cap-and-trade program?
a. A limit or cap on emissions of a pollutant is established
b. Actual emissions are measured and penalties are assessed if targets are missed
c. Allowances can be traded
d. A cap-and-trade program for greenhouse gas emissions would increase the cost of using fossil fuels.
e. None of the above
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a wallpaper company estimates the demand for a certain pattern to be 925 rolls per year. it costs $725 to set up the presses to print the pattern, plus $225 to print each roll. if the company can store a roll of wallpaper for a year at a cost of $4, how many rolls should it print at a time and how many printing runs on average will it need in a year to minimize production costs? (assume the wallpaper sells steadily throughout the year, and the company reorders more whenever the stock runs out. round the number of rolls per print to the nearest whole number and the average number of printing runs per year to two decimal places.)
To minimize production costs, the wallpaper company should print 318 rolls at a time and will need an average of 2.91 printing runs per year.
To minimize production costs, the wallpaper company should determine the optimal order quantity using the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model. The EOQ model is a formula used to calculate the optimal order quantity that minimizes the total cost of inventory management, including ordering and holding costs.
In this case, the annual demand (D) is 925 rolls, the ordering cost (S) is $725 per order, and the holding cost (H) is $4 per roll per year. Plugging these values into the EOQ formula gives us:
EOQ = ((2DS)/H)
= ((2 * 925 * 725)/4)
= 318.24
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the optimal order quantity is 318 rolls.
The average number of printing runs per year can be calculated as:
Average number of printing runs per year = D/Q = 925/318 = 2.91
Rounded to two decimal places, the average number of printing runs per year is 2.91.
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a closed economy question 13 options: does not trade with other economies. is centrally-planned. does not allow financial intermediation. all of the above are correct.
A Closed economy is one that doesn't trade with the rest of the world. This is variantC.
A closed economy, by its introductory description, doesn't trade with other husbandry.
A unrestricted frugality generally refers to a country that doesn't trade or engage in any other fiscal exchange with any other country. This means that no significances enter the country and no exports leave.
The unrestricted frugality has several advantages.
First, it allows the government to control the distribution of wealth and insure everyone has access to introductory goods and services. Second, it protects domestic companies from competition from foreign companies.Question:
A closed economy is
a) is planned centrally
b) has minimum walls to trade
c) doesn't trade with other husbandry
d) doesn't authorize fiscal intermediation
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4) an auditor is concerned about a policy of management override as a limitation of internal control. which of the following tests would best assess the validity of the auditor's concern? a) matching purchase orders to accounts payable. b) verifying that approved spending limits are not exceeded. c) tracing sales orders to the revenue account. d) reviewing minutes of board meeting.
To assess the validity of the auditor's concern about management override as a limitation of internal control, the most relevant test would be reviewing the minutes of board meetings. (option d)
Management override refers to the ability of management to manipulate or bypass internal controls to commit fraud or misrepresent financial statements. The board of directors is responsible for overseeing management and ensuring that appropriate controls are in place to prevent and detect fraud.
Therefore, reviewing the minutes of board meetings would provide insight into how the board is fulfilling its oversight responsibilities and whether there have been any indications of management override.
Matching purchase orders to accounts payable, verifying approved spending limits, and tracing sales orders to the revenue account are all important tests to assess the effectiveness of internal controls. However, they are not specifically designed to assess the risk of management override.
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the core of the international money market is a. none of the options b. the eurocurrency market c. the market for foreign exchange d. the futures forwards and options markets on foreign exchange
The market for foreign exchange is the core of the international money market. (opion c).
The international money market is a vast network of markets that enables the exchange of currencies and other financial instruments among countries.
In the forex market, currencies are bought and sold in pairs, such as USD/EUR, GBP/USD, etc. The demand and supply of currencies determine their exchange rates. The forex market is a decentralized market, which means that it has no physical location, and trading is done electronically through a network of banks and other financial institutions.
Apart from the forex market, the eurocurrency market is also an essential component of the international money market.
Lastly, the futures, forwards, and options markets on foreign exchange are also an integral part of the international money market. These markets enable traders to hedge their currency risk by locking in future exchange rates. They also provide opportunities for speculation and arbitrage.
Hence option (c) is the right choice.
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company x sells leather to company y for $60,000. company y uses the leather to make shoes, selling them to consumers for $180,000. the total contribution to gdp is:
The total contribution to GDP is $180,000, which is the value of the shoes that Company Y sells to consumers.
The contribution to GDP when company X sells leather to company Y for $60,000 and company Y uses the leather to make shoes, selling them to consumers for $180,000 is $180,000. The company’s net contribution to GDP is the sum of the value it adds to goods and services minus the value of the inputs it employs in the production process.
The sum of goods and services, which make up GDP, is a country’s total output.The consumer price is $180,000. Company X and Company Y both contributed to the GDP, but Company Y's contribution is $180,000. As the final selling price of the shoes, it is the only value that counts as a contribution to the economy. GDP is the sum of all final goods and services produced in an economy over a specified period of time. In an economy, GDP is a broad measure of economic activity. When goods are sold to another company, GDP is not affected. However, GDP increases when a finished good is sold to a consumer.
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true or false? a hospital owns clinics, a freestanding laboratory, a surgical center, and an ambulance company. all of these are under one name of the health system. this hospital follows a multiproduct branding strategy.
In this scenario, the hospital owns multiple healthcare facilities and services, such as clinics, a laboratory, a surgical center, and an ambulance company, all under one name of the health system. This statement is true.
This is an example of a multiproduct branding strategy, which involves using a single brand name to market multiple related products or services.
Multiple healthcare facilities" refers to the different healthcare-related services or institutions that are owned or operated by the hospital in the scenario given. These facilities include clinics, a laboratory, a surgical center, and an ambulance company, which are all part of the hospital's network of healthcare services.
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an engineering firm specializes in designing woodframed houses. which organizations would it be ethical for the owner of that firm to belong to? i. the local rotary club ii. the local chamber of commerce iii. a national timber-research foundation iv. a pro-logging lobbying group
An engineering firm that specializes in designing woodframed houses must belong to organizations that are ethical for the owner to belong to, The owner of an engineering firm that specializes in designing wood-framed houses,
can join the local Rotary Club, the local Chamber of Commerce, and a national timber research foundation, but not a pro-logging lobbying group.
Option i, option ii, and option iii are the ethical organizations that an owner of an engineering firm specializing in designing woodframed houses can join.
Option iv, a pro-logging lobbying group, is not an ethical organization because it can compromise the engineering firm's credibility by participating in politics rather than maintaining a professional relationship with their clients. An engineering firm specializing in designing wood-framed houses requires an owner who is knowledgeable about the environment, landscape, and timber to be involved in local civic groups.
The local Rotary Club and the local Chamber of Commerce are good opportunities to network with other professionals in the area, raise awareness about the firm, and develop relationships with clients, vendors, and other businesses. A timber research foundation is also an ethical group to join because it is committed to researching and developing new approaches to timber construction.
Additionally, by joining the foundation, the firm's owner can access valuable resources, cutting-edge research, and new materials to aid in their design work.
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dee works for a software development company. she creates software codes that adhere to specific standards set by the company. she has to go to her office for 9 hours every day and is expected to follow the company's policies and code of conduct. she receives a fixed pay that meets industry standards and she is eligible for all benefits that a full-time worker at a company receives. the relationship between dee and the company is best described as a(n): blank . multiple choice question.
Dee works for a software development company. The relationship between Dee and the company can be described as a(n) e. employer-employee relationship
When a person provides labour or services under specific guidelines in exchange for payment, an employer-employee connection occurs. Mutually beneficial rights and responsibilities are established between the employer and the employee through the job relationship, however, that is described. Dee works for a business that creates software.
She writes computer code that complies with the firm's predetermined standards. She is required to adhere to the company's policies and code of behaviour while spending nine hours each day in her workplace. She is entitled to all benefits that a full-time employee at a business is and gets a fixed salary that is in line with industry norms. The employer-employee relationship would be the best way to characterise Dee's interaction with the business.
Complete Question:
Dee works for a software development company. She creates software codes that adhere to specific standards set by the company. She has to go to her office for 9 hours everyday and is expected to follow the company's policies and code of conduct. She receives a fixed pay that meets industry standards and is eligible for all benefits that a full-time worker at a company receives. The relationship between Dee and the company can be described as a(n) _______.
a. agency by estoppel
b. principal-agent relationship
c. employer-employee relationship
d. employer-independent contractor relationship
e. employer-employee relationship
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because trust and understanding are essential to business things, the feelings of closeness that connect sister cities can translate into economic benefits. which version of the underlined word best accomplishes this goal?
The best replacement for the underlined word "things" in sentence 14 is "agreements" (option C).
This is because it more precisely conveys the idea that trust and understanding between sister cities can result in mutually beneficial economic agreements.
The original sentence implies that trust and understanding are important for conducting business in general, but the focus of the sentence is on the economic benefits that can result from the relationship between sister cities. The word "things" is vague and does not convey the specific nature of these benefits.
Option C, "agreements," is more precise and implies that specific economic agreements could be made between the sister cities based on their close relationship. Options A, B, D, and E are either too general or not relevant to the context of the sentence.
The complete question:
The writer wants to replace the underlined word in sentence 14 (reproduced below) with a more precise word, taking into account the context of the paragraph.
"Because trust and understanding are essential to business things, the feelings of closeness that connect sister cities can translate into economic benefits."Which version of the underlined word best accomplishes this goal? (The underlined word from the sentence above is "things.")
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multiple choice: auditors can apply simple to complex data analytics to a client's data. at which stage would da be applied to identify which areas the auditor should focus on?
The stage that would DA be applied to identify which areas the auditor should focus on risk assessment (option a).
One of the key tools that auditors use in their work is data analytics (DA), which involves using technology to analyze large sets of data to identify patterns, anomalies, and other insights. DA can help auditors identify areas of risk or concern that they should focus on during their audit.
Once the auditors have completed their risk assessment, they can then use DA techniques to further refine their focus and identify specific areas that may require additional scrutiny.
By using DA to identify areas of risk and concern, auditors can focus their efforts on the most important areas, which can help them to conduct a more effective and efficient audit.
Hence the correct option is (a).
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Complete Question:
Multiple choice:
Auditors can apply simple to complex data analytics to a client's data. at which stage would da be applied to identify which areas the auditor should focus on?
a) risk assessment
b) Loan
c) Assignment
d) Documentation
the keynesian theory of money demand emphasizes the importance of a. expectations. b. a constant velocity. c. interest rates on the demand for money. d. irrational behavior on the part of some economic agents.
The Keynesian theory of money demand and the option that emphasizes the importance of. In this case, the answer is option (c) interest rates on the demand for money.
The Keynesian theory of money demand is an economic theory developed by John Maynard Keynes, a renowned economist.
According to this theory, money demand is directly proportional to the interest rate. That is, when the interest rates increase, the demand for money decreases and vice versa.
This is because as interest rates increase, people are more likely to save money and less likely to borrow or spend it. Therefore, the Keynesian theory of money demand emphasizes the importance of interest rates on the demand for money.
Therefore, the correct answer is option c.
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of the various components of sales force compensation, which is designed to stimulate and reward effort? question 30 options: recognition the fixed amount the variable amount benefits expense allowances
The variable amount of sales force compensation is designed to stimulate and reward effort.
This component of compensation is often based on the salesperson's performance and can include commissions, bonuses, or other incentives.Variable compensation is designed to motivate salespeople to work harder and perform better by rewarding them for their efforts.
This type of compensation is often tied directly to sales performance, so salespeople are incentivized to sell more and meet their sales targets in order to earn more money. This can be an effective way to encourage salespeople to put in extra effort and drive sales growth for the company.
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a landlord refuses to rent an apartment to an africa american woman based on race, even though there are vacancies. this action is an example of
The action of the landlord refusing to rent an apartment to an African American woman based on her race is an example of racial discrimination.
Racial discrimination is defined as the unfair or differential treatment of individuals or groups based on their race or ethnicity. This type of discrimination is illegal and is prohibited by various laws, such as the Civil Rights Act of 1964 in the United States. The landlord's action in this scenario is not only unethical but also unlawful, as it violates the fair housing laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, familial status, or disability in the rental or sale of housing.
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which of the following economic mysteries does the law of diminishing marginal utility help explain? group of answer choices why diamonds, which are not necessary for our survival, are so expensive, and water, which is essential for life, is so cheap. why some people cheat on their significant other, who they claim to love more than anybody else in the world why top professional athletes and actors get paid more than top teachers and nurses. all of the answer choices are correct
Diminishing marginal utility is the economic law that explains why diamonds are so expensive despite being unnecessary for human survival while water, which is crucial to human survival, is so cheap.
Water, like any other commodity, is subject to the law of diminishing marginal utility. As a result, its total utility declines as a consumer consumes more and more of it. The total utility of a commodity is the overall satisfaction or usefulness derived from consuming the commodity. The marginal utility, on the other hand, is the additional utility gained by consuming an extra unit of the commodity. Because water is so plentiful, the marginal utility of each additional unit of water consumed is relatively low, resulting in a lower price.In contrast, diamonds, which are scarce and limited, have a high marginal utility, making them more valuable and expensive.
While they are not essential for human survival, they are still considered a luxury item and can provide significant satisfaction to consumers. This is due to the fact that the marginal utility of each additional diamond is high, making it more valuable and expensive than water.
Therefore, it can be concluded that the law of diminishing marginal utility explains why diamonds are so expensive, despite being unnecessary for human survival, while water, which is crucial to human survival, is so cheap.
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keedis products has projected the following sales for the coming year: q1 q2 q3 q4 sales $ 16,400 $ 14,150 $ 14,975 $ 15,825 the company places orders each quarter that are 35 percent of the following quarter's sales and has a 60-day payables period. what is the payment of accounts for the second quarter?
The payment of accounts for the second quarter is $864.23.
To calculate COGS, we need to know the inventory turnover rate, which is the number of times inventory is sold and replaced during the year. Let's assume that Keedis Products has an inventory turnover rate of 4, meaning they sell and replace their inventory 4 times a year.
To calculate the COGS for the first quarter, we take the sales for the quarter and divide by the inventory turnover rate:
COGS = Q1 Sales / Inventory Turnover Rate
COGS = $16,400 / 4
COGS = $4,100
Next, we can calculate the purchases for the second quarter, which are 35% of the third quarter's sales:
Q2 Purchases = Q3 Sales x 35%
Q2 Purchases = $14,975 x 0.35
Q2 Purchases = $5,241.25
Now we can calculate the payment of accounts for the second quarter, which is the purchases for the quarter multiplied by the payables period (in days) divided by 365 (the number of days in a year):
Payment of Accounts = Q2 Purchases x Payables Period / 365
Payment of Accounts = $5,241.25 x 60 / 365
Payment of Accounts = $864.23
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a franchise generally expires after a few years, whereas a license is designed to last into perpetuity. group of answer choices true false
The given statement "A franchise generally expires after a few years, whereas a license is designed to last into perpetuity." is False because license can also expire.
A franchise agreement can be designed to last for a specific period of time, but it can also be renewed or extended. Similarly, a license agreement can also be set to expire after a specific period of time, or it can be granted in perpetuity.
The duration of both franchise and license agreements depends on the terms negotiated between the franchisor/licensor and the franchisee/licensee.
In general, a franchise agreement provides the franchisee with the right to use the franchisor's trademarks and business system, while a license agreement typically grants the licensee the right to use the licensor's intellectual property.
Both types of agreements involve the transfer of rights from the franchisor/licensor to the franchisee/licensee, but the specific terms of the agreement can vary widely.
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job a3b was ordered by a customer on september 25. during the month of september, jaycee corporation used $2,500 of direct materials and used $4,000 of direct labor. the job was not finished in september. an additional $3,000 of direct materials and $6,500 of direct labor were needed to finish the job in october. the company applies overhead at the end of each month at a rate of 200% of the direct labor cost incurred. what is the total cost of the job when it is completed in october?
The total cost of job A3B when it is completed in October is $27,000.
To calculate the total cost of job A3B, we need to consider the direct materials, direct labor, and overhead costs incurred in both September and October. In September, the company used $2,500 of direct materials and $4,000 of direct labor, but the job was not finished. Therefore, these costs are considered part of the work-in-progress (WIP) for job A3B at the end of September.
In October, the company needed an additional $3,000 of direct materials and $6,500 of direct labor to finish the job. These costs, along with the WIP costs from September, make up the total direct materials and direct labor costs for the job. To calculate the overhead costs, we need to determine the total direct labor cost incurred for the job. In this case, the total direct labor cost is $4,000 + $6,500 = $10,500. The company applies overhead at a rate of 200% of the direct labor cost incurred, which means that the overhead cost for job A3B is $10,500 x 200% = $21,000.
The total cost of job A3B when it is completed in October is the sum of the direct materials, direct labor, and overhead costs: $2,500 + $4,000 + $3,000 + $6,500 + $21,000 = $37,000. However, since $10,000 of these costs were incurred in September and are considered part of the WIP, we subtract that amount to get the total cost of the job when it is completed in October: $37,000 - $10,000 = $27,000.
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athletix shoe company is bringing a new shoe to the market, so it begins a series of ads meant to highlight the new shoe for customers. these ads can be best described as advertising. multiple choice brand advocacy competitive public service institutional
Brand advocacy ads can be best described as advertising. The answer is OPTION A
Brand advocacy is a common strategy used in contemporary company marketing. Brand evangelists spread the news about the company. Their glowing testimonials regarding the goods or services provided by the business assist in attracting new clients. The goal of advocacy marketing is to encourage your existing customers to promote your company, goods, and/or services online.
Advocates have a variety of methods to show their support for your company, including YouTu-be review videos. updates. shares onLoyalty concerns our customers' own buying decisions, whereas advocacy concerns what they say to other people. Advocacy is the highest possible recommendation for our goods and services, and it is also free promotion.
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tony offers to buy his 25 year-old nephew christopher a new cadillac if he refrains from smoking or drinking alcohol for a year. tony tries to defend against his refusal to perform on the contract a year later, on the grounds that the contract lacks consideration, even though christopher could prove he had neither smoked nor drank alcohol for a year. true or false: the likely result would be that a court would agree that there was no consideration because giving up smoking and drinking cannot be legal consideration.
The given statement is False because the likely result would not be that a court would agree that there was no consideration because giving up smoking and drinking can be legal consideration. In this case, Tony offers to buy Christopher a new Cadillac if he refrains from smoking or drinking alcohol for a year.
The contract between Tony and Christopher has consideration, as both parties are giving up something of value. Tony is giving up the money required to buy the Cadillac, while Christopher is giving up his freedom to smoke and drink alcohol for a year. The fact that Christopher is abstaining from certain behaviors that he is legally entitled to engage in can be considered a valid form of consideration.
In a contract, consideration is the benefit or interest that each party receives or expects to receive from the agreement. In this situation, both parties are receiving benefits: Tony receives the satisfaction of knowing his nephew is living a healthier lifestyle, and Christopher receives a new Cadillac in exchange for abstaining from smoking and drinking alcohol for a year.
In summary, the court would likely disagree with Tony's defense, as there was consideration in the contract, making it enforceable. Christopher's actions of refraining from smoking and drinking alcohol for a year can be considered legal consideration. Therefore the statement is false.
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rue or false. voluntary export restraints and quotas are essentially identical in their welfare effects.
The given statement- "voluntary export restraints and quotas are essentially identical in their welfare effects" is False. Voluntary export restraints and quotas are not essentially identical in their welfare effects.
What are Voluntary Export Restraints (VER)?Voluntary export restraints (VER) are trade restrictions on exports voluntarily imposed by countries that are exporting. They are a sort of import quota that only applies to specific nations.
An importing nation can request a voluntary export restriction from an exporting nation if it wishes to limit imports from that country.
However, quotas are trade restrictions placed by governments on the quantity of a good that can be imported into a country during a certain period of time.
The quota is generally imposed to safeguard local producers from foreign competitors or to alleviate a balance of payment problem.
Quotas and voluntary export restraints are both trade-restricting measures, but they are not identical in their welfare effects.
The primary distinction between the two is that one is placed on imports while the other is placed on exports, and the welfare effects of these measures are different.
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which of the following is true of classes of common stock? multiple select question. the classes of common stock often have unequal voting rights. firms may have only one class of common stock. a primary reason for creating more than one class of stock is to maintain control. all classes of common stock are required to have equal voting rights.
The following statements are true of classes of common stock:
1. The classes of common stock often have unequal voting rights.
2. Firms may have only one class of common stock.
3. A primary reason for creating more than one class of stock is to maintain control.
In some companies, different classes of common stock have unequal voting rights to give certain shareholders more influence over the company's decisions.
While it is possible for firms to have only one class of common stock, creating multiple classes can help maintain control by ensuring that certain individuals or groups retain voting power.
It is not required for all classes of common stock to have equal voting rights, as this can vary based on the company's structure and objectives.
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fuschia company's contribution margin per unit is $16. total fixed costs are $96,160. what is fuschia's break-even point in units?
Fuschia company's break-even point in units is 6,010 units
Break-even point is the level of sales or production volume at which the total revenue generated by a business is equal to its total costs, resulting in a net profit of zero. At this point, a business has neither made a profit nor incurred a loss.
To calculate the break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula
Break-even point (units) = Total fixed costs / Contribution margin per unit
Using the information given in the question, we can substitute the values as follows
Break-even point (units) = $96,160 / $16 per unit
Break-even point (units) = 6,010 units
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a marketing associate manages the online marketing campaigns for a vitamin and supplement store. they launch a search campaign and choose "website traffic" as the campaign marketing goal. which outcome should the marketing associate expect from the campaign?
Through online marketing campaigns, the marketing associate must expect the outcome of d. Getting more customers to learn about his products.
In order to increase a company's conversion rate, an online marketing plan entails the implementation of a marketing strategy across all of the digital platforms where customers interact with a brand. The marketer will increase the number of customers who learn about goods if he selects website traffic as his campaign marketing objective. It encourages website visits from prospective clients.
For example, if an advertiser wants people to visit their website after seeing advertisements, they can choose the "Website traffic" objective. The suggested features and settings that can aid in generating website visits can be seen as the campaign is set up after choosing this objective. The primary objective in marketing should always be flexible and subject to change.
Complete Question:
A marketing associate manages the online marketing campaigns for a vitamin and supplement store. they launch a search campaign and choose "website traffic" as the campaign marketing goal. which outcome should the marketing associate expect from the campaign?
a. More followers on the store’s social media presence.
b. More online sales through Reggie’s online store.
c. E-mail sign-ups from people interested in a healthy lifestyle.
d. Getting more customers to learn about his products.
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your investments increased in value by 15.5 percent last year, but your purchasing power increased by only 11.4 percent. what was the approximate inflation rate? (enter your answer as a percent rounded to 1 decimal place.)
If the investments increased in value by 15.5 percent, and the purchasing power increased by only 11.4 percent, it means that the inflation rate decreased the purchasing power by (15.5 - 11.4) percent, which equals 4.1 percent.
To calculate the approximate inflation rate, follow these steps:
Determine the percentage increase in investments (15.5%)
Determine the percentage increase in purchasing power (11.4%)
Subtract the purchasing power increase from the investment increase to find the inflation rate (15.5% - 11.4%)
The approximate inflation rate is 4.1%.
Therefore ,the approximate inflation rate is 4.1%.
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if the federal government wants to stimulate a stagnating economy in recession (it wants to increase production), which of the following actions will it take? a. increase the reserve ratio. b. sell bonds to the public. c. increase the discount rate. d. none of the answers are actions that it would take.
Answer:
D. none of the answers are actions that it would take.
The federal government would take action D, none of the answers are actions that it would take, to stimulate a stagnating economy in recession and increase production.(D)
To stimulate a stagnating economy in recession, the government typically uses expansionary monetary or fiscal policies. These actions include:
1. Lowering the reserve ratio, allowing banks to lend more and increase money supply.
2. Buying bonds from the public, injecting money into the economy.
3. Lowering the discount rate, making borrowing cheaper for banks.
The options A, B, and C provided in the question are contractionary policies that reduce money supply and slow down the economy, opposite of what the government aims to achieve in this situation.(D)
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