Answer:
A
Explanation:
just did it
Laura is about to start her third round of chemotherapy. Her chemotherapy medication is dosed by her BSA. She weighs 120 lb and is 60 in tall. What is her BSA
Her chemotherapy medication is dosed by her BSA. She weighs 120 lb and is 60 in tall her BSA was 1.52 m2
Is chemotherapy exclusively used for cancer patients?
Chemotherapy is a common family of medications used to treat a wide range of illnesses, including but not limited to malignancies, blood problems, and a wide range of autoimmune diseases. Similar to how it can be given orally, topically, intravenously, or subcutaneously.In order to eradicate your body's rapidly proliferating cells, chemotherapy is a pharmacological therapy. Chemotherapy is most frequently used to treat cancer because cancer cells grow and reproduce a great deal faster than most other types of body cells. Chemotherapy medications come in a variety of forms.
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Home remedies are common among the African American community and can include all of the following except:
Home remedies are common among the African American community and can include all of the following except: iodione. African American infant mortality.
What health condition are African Americans most at risk for?According to the Office of Minority Health, a division of the Department of Health and Human Services, African Americans are typically more susceptible to heart disease, stroke, cancer, asthma, influenza, pneumonia, diabetes, and HIV/AIDS than their white counterparts.
African Americans are more likely than other races to die young from all causes, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC),2 and this may be because young African Americans are more likely to be affected by diseases than other races to be when they are older. For instance:
Between the ages of 18 and 34, high blood pressure affects 12% of black people and 10% of white people, respectively. It is prevalent in 33% of people aged 35 to 49, compared to 22% of this age group.
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A nurse is caring for an infant with a tentative diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What is most important for the nurse to assess
When caring for an infant with diagnosis of Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (HPS), it is important for the nurse to assess the signs of dehydration.
HPS is the disease of the infants where the entry of food into the small intestine is blocked. This happens because the opening between the stomach and the small intestine thickens. The disease appears in the babies that are less than or up to 6 months of age.
Dehydration is the condition where the body of an individual has less quantity of fluids than normal. Dehydration can arise due to several reasons like inadequate fluid intake, due to some disease or as an effect of medications.
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Steven is about to start his second round of chemotherapy. His chemotherapy medication is dosed by his BSA. He weighs 200 lb and is 72 in tall. What is his BSA
2.15 m2 start his second round of chemotherapy. His chemotherapy medication is dosed by his BSA. He weighs 200 lb and is 72
Chemotherapy is used at what stage of cancer?
Chemotherapy and/or targeted therapies are the principal treatments for extensive stage 4 colon cancer. Your care team may recommend surgery to treat that specific location and treat symptoms if the cancer is encroaching on other organs or producing specific symptoms.Is chemotherapy only used for cancer?
Chemotherapy is a common family of medications used to treat a wide range of illnesses, including but not limited to: malignancies, blood problems, and a wide range of autoimmune diseases. Similar to how it can be given orally, topically, intravenously, or subcutaneously, it can also be given in many other ways.
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What type of water contaminants presents the greatest health threat to most residents of developing countries
the nurse is asked to administer captopril for aterload reduction in a chuld with heart failuer. which action does the nurse
The nurse is asked to Monitor blood pressure.
Captopril, also known as Capoten, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor used to treat hypertension and some kinds of congestive heart failure. Captopril was the first oral ACE inhibitor discovered to treat hypertension.
Captopril has an L-proline group, which makes it more accessible in oral forms. The thiol moiety inside the molecule has been linked to two significant negative effects: hapten and immunological response. This immunological reaction, also known as agranulocytosis, may explain the adverse medication events associated with captopril, such as hives, severe stomach discomfort, trouble breathing, and swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or neck. Captopril side effects include cough caused by a rise in plasma bradykinin levels, angioedema, agranulocytosis, proteinuria, hyperkalemia, taste change, teratogenicity, postural hypotension, acute renal failure, and leukopenia.
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Mr. Black is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of neck pain that he thinks is from his job involving computer data entry. As the examiner, you are checking the range of motion in his neck and note the greatest degree of cervical mobility is at:
The C4 to C5 range of motion is the most important range of motion for cervical mobility because it is the area of the neck where most of the movement occurs.
This area is made up of the rotational joints between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae (C4-C5), and movement in this area is important for activities like turning the head to look over the shoulder or behind us while driving.
Because Mr. Black’s job involves computer data entry, which likely requires a lot of head turning and neck movement, it is likely that the C4-C5 range of motion is the greatest degree of cervical mobility. Other ranges of motion like C3-C4 or C5-C6 are important for range of motion, but C4-C5 is the most important for activities like turning the head.
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In 1980 Medicare authorized implementation of ambulatory surgical center (ASC) __________ rates as a fee to ASCs for facility services furnished in connection with performing certain surgical procedures.
In 1980, Medicare authorized the implementation of ambulatory surgical center (ASC) payment rates as a fee to ASCs for facility services furnished in connection with performing certain surgical procedures.
This means that Medicare would provide reimbursement to ASCs for the use of their facilities when certain surgical procedures were performed. This authorization was a recognition by Medicare of the cost-effectiveness and quality of care provided by ASCs, and it helped to further establish ASCs as an alternative to hospital-based outpatient surgery. This reimbursement policy helped to increase the number of ASCs and the variety of procedures performed in them, and it also helped to reduce the overall cost of care for Medicare beneficiaries. This also means that ASCs were reimbursed for their space usage and not for the surgical procedures itself which are covered by other reimbursement schemes.
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A physician assistant (PA) must be legally authorized and licensed by the state to furnish services, have graduated from an accredited physician assistant educational program, and have passed the national certification examination of the __________.
A physician assistant (PA) must be legally authorized and licensed by the state to furnish services, have graduated from an accredited physician assistant educational program, and have passed the national certification examination of the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA).
A physician assistant (PA) is a healthcare professional who is trained to provide medical services under the supervision of a licensed physician. To legally furnish services, a PA must be authorized and licensed by the state in which they practice. This authorization is typically in the form of a license or certification and is required for the PA to practice legally.
To become authorized and licensed, a PA must have graduated from an accredited physician assistant educational program. Accreditation is a process that ensures that educational programs meet certain standards of quality and that graduates are prepared to provide safe and effective care. The accreditation for PA programs is provided by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA).
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Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to a. blocks transport of the neurotransmitter molecule through the axon membrane. b. enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule. c. increase the number of postsynaptic receptors. d. increase release of the neurotransmitter. e. increase synthesis of the neurotransmitter molecule.
Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule.
The correct option is B.
Neurotransmitter molecules are promptly destroyed by enzymes in the synaptic cleft after release and attachment to postsynaptic receptors. They are also reabsorbed by presynaptic membrane receptors and recycled. High-affinity sodium-dependent GABA and glycine transporters take up GABA and glycine into nerve terminals and glial cells to reduce their effects on postsynaptic membrane receptors. High-affinity sodium-dependent GABA and glycine transporters take up GABA and glycine into nerve terminals and glial cells to reduce their effects on postsynaptic membrane receptors.
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the abbreviation given to an infant who was born to a woman who drank heavily during pregnancy
The abbreviation given to an infant who was born to a woman who drank heavily during pregnancy is Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs).
Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) are a group of conditions that can do in a person who was exposed to alcohol before birth. These goods can include physical problems and problems with geste and literacy.
Pregnancy is the time during which one or further seed develops( gestates) inside a woman's uterus( womb). A multiple gestation involves further than one seed, similar as with halves. gestation generally occurs by sexual intercourse, but can also do through supported reproductive technology procedures. gestation is" the presence of an implanted mortal embryo or fetus in the uterus"; implantation occurs on average 8 – 9 days after fertilization.
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The magicoreligious theory can best be described as: Group of answer choices Illness occurs because of hot and cold reactions Each part is a piece of the larger structure in the world of nature. The struggle between good and evil is reflected in a person's health
The magic religious theory can be described as each part being a piece of the larger structure in the world of nature.
In the body of religion, the element of magic is an integral part. Broadly speaking, magic can be said to be beliefs and habits according to which humans believe that they can directly influence their own natural and reasoning forces either for good or for bad purposes by their efforts in manipulating higher powers.
The existence of beliefs and beliefs originating from external (impersonal) humans shows the existence of an element of magic, while the personification of God as a force outside of humanity shows the existence of religion because it raises awareness of actions and ceremonies.
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What communication barriers might exist between patients and healthcare workers?
The communication barriers which might exist between patients and healthcare workers include the following below:
Competing demandsLack of privacyBackground noiseWhat is Communication?This is referred to as the act of transferring information from one place, person or group to another and it involves the use of various medium and methods such as mass media, talking etc.
In a healthcare facility such as in a hospital, information is usually passed verbally which involves the speaking of words for better understanding as different topics are explained thoroughly.
However, there may be some communication barriers which may hinder a patient or worker from hearing one another such as background noise from other rooms and also lack of privacy.
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The nurse is conducting a gastrointestinal assessment. When the client reports the presence of mucus and pus in the stool, the nurse assesses for additional signs/symptoms of which disease/condition
During a gastrointestinal assessment, the client reports the presence of mucus and pus in the stool, the nurse assesses for additional signs/symptoms of proctitis.
A sign of infection is pus in the stool. Stool mucus can indicate an infection, inflammation, cancer, constipation, or anus or rectum conditions. Diet, infection, or food poisoning can all be factors in frequently occurring loose-formed stools.
Short-term or long-term inflammation of the rectum's lining is known as proctitis. The need to urinate frequently and urgently is the most common symptom. The rectal discharge of pus or mucus is another sign of proctitis and should be reported to a doctor right away.
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Which increased physiological response would the nurse include when explaining the need for weight loss to a client who is diagnosed with diabetes
The increased physiological response that the nurse would include when explaining the need for weight loss to a client who is diagnosed with diabetes is Insulin requirements.
Obesity causes cellular insulin resistance, requiring more insulin to transfer glucose across cell membranes. Fatty acid metabolism is altered. Fatty acids deteriorate, and storage capacity decreases. Obesity lowers glucose oxidation while increasing insulin needs. Obesity raises the resistance of peripheral cells to glucose admission.
Diabetes is a chronic medical condition that affects how body transforms food into energy. The body converts the bulk of the food eaten into sugar (glucose) and releases it into the circulation. When the blood sugar levels rise, the pancreas sends a signal to the muscles to produce insulin.
The majority of diabetes types have no known cause. Sugar builds up in the bloodstream under all circumstances. This is caused to the pancreas producing inadequate insulin. Diabetes, both type 1 and type 2, can be caused by a combination of inherited and environmental factors.
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At an organizational level, which of the following strategies would assist in ensuring that EBP is incorporated into nursing care
Answer: The options are
a. Formation of nursing-only implementation teams
b. Restriction of evidence to RCT's
c. Formation of a network of individuals doing research and/or interested in research utilization
d. Avoidance of partnership with experienced researcher
The answer to this question is Formation of a network of individuals doing research and/or interested in research utilization
Explanation: Collaboration, partnerships, and consideration of a variety of evidence appropriate to the clinical questions are important in ensuring translation of evidence into practice. Collaboration is considered particularly critical and can occur through practice-based networks.
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The strategy that would assist in ensuring that EBP is incorporated into nursing care is the formation of a network of individuals doing research and/or interested in research utilization.
What is the significance of nursing care?The significance of nursing care is determined by the fact that they play an essential role in society today by being advocates for health promotion, educating the public and patients on preventing injury and illnesses, participating in rehabilitation, and providing care and support.
According to the context of this question, the process of nursing care increases the collaboration, consideration, and participation of a variety of evidence that is valid for the circumstance according to the requirement of the patients. The research is always done under the collaboration of similar scientists with respect o your interests.
Therefore, the strategy that would assist in ensuring that EBP is incorporated into nursing care is the formation of a network of individuals doing research and/or interested in research utilization.
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Your question seems incomplete. The most probable complete question is as follows:
At an organizational level, which of the following strategies would assist in ensuring that EBP is incorporated into nursing care?
Formation of nursing-only implementation teams.Restriction of evidence to RCT's.Formation of a network of individuals doing research and/or interested in research utilization.Avoidance of partnership with an experienced researcher.In anticipation of a client returning to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy, which intervention would be highest priority for the nurse to perform
In anticipation of a client returning to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy, the highest priority intervention for the nurse would be be to set up a tracheostomy kit by the patient's bed.
Sometimes the parathyroid glands are unintentionally removed during thyroid surgery. A subsequent hypocalcemia may cause the glottis to contract, obstructing the airway. Edema at the surgical site may also do the same. Airway obstruction following thyroid surgery is an emergency circumstance, albeit being uncommon. A tracheostomy kit, suction tools, and oxygen should be easily accessible in the client's room. The laryngeal nerve needs to be assessed through speech, so having a pen and paper on hand is appropriate. It is recommended to adopt a semi-Fowler position to increase respiratory excursion. A patent airway, however, takes precedence over these procedures.
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The nurse manager wants to use evidence-based recommendations to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. What is the critical first step to effectively gather evidence for guiding practice
The critical first step to effectively gather evidence for guiding practice and prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia is to conduct a thorough and systematic literature review.
This involves identifying relevant research studies, critically evaluating the quality and relevance of the studies, and synthesizing the findings to generate evidence-based recommendations. The nurse manager should start by developing a clear and specific research question related to ventilator-associated pneumonia prevention. Then, the manager should use multiple databases such as PubMed, CINAHL, and Cochrane Library to search for relevant studies. The manager should also use appropriate keywords and filters to ensure that the search is as comprehensive as possible. After identifying relevant studies, the manager should critically evaluate the quality of the studies using established tools such as the Cochrane Risk of Bias tool and the GRADE system. The manager should also consider the relevance of the studies in terms of the population, intervention, comparator, and outcome. The manager should then synthesize the findings from the studies to generate evidence-based recommendations.
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The nurse is collecting data from a child who may have a seizure disorder. Which nursing observations suggest an absence seizure
The nursing observations suggests an absence seizure is Minimal or no alteration in muscle tone, with a brief loss of responsiveness or attention.
A seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable electrical breakdown in the brain. It can influence your behaviour, movements, and sensations, as well as your level of consciousness. The term "epilepsy" refers to two or more seizures that occur at least 24 hours apart and are not induced by a known cause.
Seizures can occur both provoked and unprovoked. Provoked seizures occur as a result of a transitory event such as low blood sugar, alcohol withdrawal, alcohol abuse while taking prescription medicine, low blood sodium, fever, brain infection, or concussion. Unprovoked seizures occur when there is no recognised or treatable cause, and they are likely to continue. Stress or sleep deprivation may aggravate unprovoked seizures. Epilepsy is a brain condition in which there has been at least one spontaneous seizure and there is a significant chance of future seizures. Fainting, nonepileptic psychogenic seizure, and tremor are examples of conditions that appear to be epileptic seizures but are not.
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A nurse working in an acute care for elders unit observes that a client on the unit frequently stumbles when ambulating with a walker. Which action by the nurse is best
The nurse should assess the client's gait and balance, and document the observations. The nurse should also ask the client about any pain or discomfort they may be experiencing when ambulating.
If the client is experiencing pain or discomfort, the nurse should provide appropriate pain management and report it to the physician. The nurse should also assess the client's walker for proper fit and function, and make any necessary adjustments. If the client is still struggling with ambulation, the nurse should consider using an assistive device such as a rolling walker or a wheelchair, and consult with the physician and physical therapist. The nurse should also consider environmental factors that may be contributing to the client's unsteadiness and make necessary adjustments, such as providing additional lighting or removing obstacles.
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A nurse prepares to discharge an older adult patient home from the emergency department (ED). What actions should the nurse take to prevent future ED visits
In order to reduce the need for future ED visits, the nurse should additionally screen older persons for functional evaluation,
cognitive assessment, and fall risk.
What does a cognitive assessmentinclude?
How does a cognitive test work? Cognitive tests come in a variety of forms. Each entails responding to a series of questions and/or carrying out easy tasks. They are created to aid in measuring mental abilities including memory, language, and the capacity to recognize objects.What are the four types of cognition?
The theory and application of cognitive functions. Carl Jung's theory of cognitive functions serves as the foundation. Among them, he named four as sense, intuition, reasoning, and feeling.
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The health care provider has just prescribed tetracycline for an adolescent with acne vulgaris. The client takes oral contraceptive pills. The clinic nurse should educate the teen about which topics? Select all that apply.
1. Not taking tetracycline with dairy products
2. Taking tetracycline at bedtime
3. Taking tetracycline with food
4. Using additional contraceptive techniques
5. Using sunblock
The nurse at the clinic needs to teach the teen which subjects are Sunscreen use, supplementary forms of contraception, and avoiding taking tetracycline with dairy items.
What is tetracycline?Tetracycline is used to treat bacterial infections that affect the skin, eye, lymphatic, intestinal, vaginal, and urinary systems, as well as a few additional infections that are transferred by ticks, lice, mites, and infected animals. These infections include pneumonia and other respiratory tract infections. To treat acne, it is often used in combination with other drugs. As a treatment for plague and tuleramia, tetracycline is also utilised (serious infections that may be spread on purpose as part of a bioterror attack).
Various forms of food poisoning and anthrax can also be treated with it in patients who are ineligible for penicillin treatment.
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which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Vasodilators form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Vasodilation is the medical term for when blood vessels in your body widen, allowing further blood to inflow through them and lowering your blood pressure. This is a normal process that happens in your body without you indeed realizing it.
Vasodilators are specifics that open( dilate) blood vessels. They affect the muscles in the walls of the highways and modes, precluding the muscles from tensing and the walls from narrowing. This enables further effective delivery of the vulnerable cells necessary for defense and form. As a result, blood flows more fluently through the vessels.
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The nurse is educating parents of a child admitted to the hospital with rubella (German measles). Which statement by the parents indicates the further education is needed
The statement "Antibiotics are needed to help our child recover from rubella." by the parents indicates the further education is needed.
This statement shows that the parents are not aware of the serious complications that rubella can cause, such as encephalitis and congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) which can lead to birth defects in an unborn baby if the mother contracts rubella during pregnancy. Therefore, the nurse should provide more education on the potential complications of rubella and the importance of preventing the spread of the disease.
Another example would be if the parents say "We can't give our child the rubella vaccine because it causes autism" this statement also shows a lack of understanding about the facts and myths about vaccination and the importance of vaccination in preventing the spread of the disease.
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While explaining the importance of developing leadership skills among nurses to a group of first-year nursing students, Natalie, a nursing unit manager, emphasizes that:
Nursing Unit Manager Natalie explains to a group of first-year nursing students the importance of developing leadership skills among nurses, emphasizing: The public needs nurses to take the lead in advancing consumer advocacy concerns.
The four basic skills for leadership in nursing are communication, problem-solving, management, and self-assessment. The most important leadership skill for nursing students in clinical care coordination. Prioritization, time management, and clinical decision-making are secondary factors involved in coordinating clinical care. She believes clear and open communication, accountability and defined roles, and participatory decision-making are key to a healthy environment. Communication skills are key to effective leadership, regardless of the type of leader or the type of unit the caregiver leads.
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a nurse is caring for a client with hyperparthyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dl. which medication
a nurse is caring for a client with hyperparthyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dl. medication Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
The parathyroid hormone, which is made by the thyroid glands, aids in preserving the proper level of calcium in the blood and in tissues that require calcium for healthy function. For bone health as well as nerve and muscle function, this is extremely crucial.
Hyperparathyroidism comes in two flavors. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by an overproduction of parathyroid hormone brought on by enlargement of one or more parathyroid glands. High blood calcium levels as a result of this can result in a number of health issues. The most often used therapy for primary hyperparathyroidism is surgery.
Another condition that first results in low calcium levels in the body can lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism. As the body struggles to maintain a high calcium level, elevated parathyroid hormone levels develop over time.
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A woman who delivered her infant 2 days ago asks the nurse why she wakes up at night drenched in sweat. She is concerned that this is a problem. The nurse's best reply would be:
The nurse's best reply would be sweating is common in the first few days after childbirth because your body has to expel all of the extra fluids from pregnancy.
Diaphoresis is common among postpartum women as just a mechanism to eliminate extra fluids and waste through the skin. During the initial days after giving birth, it isn't uncommon for a mother to wake up soaked in perspiration. This is a common occurrence and is not a reason for alarm.
Sweating is the body's natural method of controlling its temperature. Sweating is frequently caused by physical effort, an increase in body temperature, and exposure to heat. Sweat functions as a coolant, lowering internal body temperature.
In some circumstances, mental or emotional stress may cause a person to sweat in the armpits or the palms of their hands. Diaphoresis normally goes away after the underlying reason is identified. This article examines the various causes and treatment options.
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a. Describe the three stages of prenatal development your baby will go through during the pregnancy.
Answer:
1. Germinal Stage (First two weeks after conception are known as the Germinal stage)
2. Embryonic Period (The third through the eighth week is known as the Embryonic period)
3. Fetal Period (The time from the ninth week until birth is known as the Fetal period)
Explanation:
Choose the correct answer:-
with regard to obstetric history:
1. pregnancy is dated from conception
2. parity is the total number of pregnancies regardless of how they ended
3. a previous history of pre eclampsia should trigger increased antenatal surveillance
4. the last menstrual period is reliable if cycle is irregular
The correct answer with regard to obstetric history is option :
2. Parity is the total number of pregnancies regardless of how they ended.
3. A previous history of pre eclampsia should trigger increased antenatal surveillance.
What is obstetric history about?Obstetric history refers to a woman's medical history related to pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum. This includes information about past pregnancies, such as the number of pregnancies, the number of live births, the number of miscarriages or abortions, and the dates of these events.
Therefore, It also includes information about any complications that occurred during pregnancy or childbirth, such as pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, or cesarean delivery.
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Identifica los compromisos que asume el médico y cuál es la importancia del Juramento Hipocrático. Explícalos con tus palabras pensándolos en la actualidad de la medicina.
Answer:
Este Juramento Hipocrático , con algunas modificaciones, es el mismo que en la actualidad deben firmar los que terminan sus a sus discípulos, que llevarían a lo largo del mundo la medicina. A más de dos milenios, la concepción del griego continúa siendo la base de la ética médica a nivel global.
Explanation: