The main reason for the decrease in the number of procedures performed in the hospital is that the majority of these procedures have been transferred to outpatient settings.
What is outpatient care called?Outpatient care is any consultation, procedure, treatment or other medical service provided without an overnight stay in a hospital or medical facility.
What is outpatient setting (services)?Primary care physicians, community health clinics, urgent care clinics, specialist outpatient clinics, pharmacies, and emergency departments are examples of outpatient settings (services).
What is the main difference between inpatient and outpatient care?In general, inpatient care requires you to stay in the hospital, while outpatient care does not. The big difference is whether you need to be hospitalized or not.
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A nurse is performing eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Hold the irrigator 1.25 cm (0.5 in) above the eye.
b. Direct the irrigation solution upward toward the upper eyelid.
c. Exert pressure on the bony prominences when holding the eyelids open.
d. Direct the irrigation from the outer canthus to the inner canthus of the eye.
Eye irrigation is method of cleaning of the conjunctiva sac by a stream of liquid.
The following solution can be used:
1. Plain water to clean the eye should be used.
2. Normal saline also known as (sodium chloride).
3. Boric acid 2%, as a sanitized.
4. Silver nitrate 1%, is as an sanitizes.
Here are the general instructions.
1. Maintain aseptic technique throughout the procedure to safe introduction of infection into eye.
2. Use only sterile articles and result for eye irrigation.
3. Never ever touch eye with irrigator.
4. Test temperature of the answer at the inner surface of the wrist.
5. Move of the fluid should be from inner canthus to the outer canthus to prevent forcing the infection into the nasolacrimal duct.
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A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the importance of contraception and safe-sex practices. Which factors can most affect the nurse's teaching strategies for this client
The nurse's teaching strategies for the importance of contraception and safe-sex practices clients are planning effective teaching tactics influenced by the availability of materials, preferred learning styles, and literacy level.
The nurse should not give consideration to the client's work or family size when organizing this instruction session. They would only be taken into account if the nurse believed they might have an impact on how the lesson went. Information and services on contraception are essential for protecting everyone's health and human rights. Reduced maternal illness and the number of pregnancy-related fatalities are benefits of preventing unplanned pregnancies. Natural family planning can be used to conceive or prevent pregnancy. Chemicals or physical items are not involved. You can become more aware of potential infections by learning to distinguish between regular and atypical vaginal discharges.
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A child with heart failure is on Lanoxin (digoxin). The laboratory value a nurse must closely monitor is which
A child with heart failure is on Lanoxin (digoxin). The laboratory value a nurse must closely monitor is which serum potassium level
What impacts the heart does Lanoxin have?
It functions by having an impact on specific minerals (sodium and potassium) within cardiac cells. As a result, the heart is put under less stress and is better able to keep up a regular, steady beating.What are the uses of Lanoxin tablets?
Heart failure is treated with lanoxin. Atrial fibrillation, a condition affecting the atria's heart rhythm, is similarly treated with lanoxin (the upper chambers of the heart that allow blood to flow into the heart)
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after further discussion, the nurse finds that the client is not willing to participate in the durg rehabilitation program and still uses cocaine frequently. WHat does the nurse instruct the client realted to infant nutrtition
The nurse finds that the client is not willing to participate in the durg rehabilitation program and still uses cocaine frequently, so she will instruct the client to stop breastfeeding for infant nutrition.
For infant nutrition, bone milk is stylish. It has all the necessary vitamins and minerals. Child food formulas are available for babies whose maters aren't suitable to or decide not to breastfeed. babies are generally ready to eat solid foods at about 6 months of age.
The World Health Organization( WHO) recommends breastfeeding up to 2 times or further. They also recommend to breastfeed a child for at lest a year for their good nutrition.
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Which developmental consideration is a nurse assessing when determining that an 8-year-old child is not equipped to understand the scientific explanation of the child's disease
If the 8-year-old child is not able to grasp the scientific reasoning for his condition, then the nurse is assessing Intellectual development. This is because intellect determines the ability to judge and understand complex topics.
Intellectual growth is all about giving a child's reasoning and problem-solving abilities a swift boost. Their memory, problem-solving ability, reasoning, and thinking capacities all work together to form who they are through time. It all comes down to how well a youngster develops their capacity for thought and reasoning. The child's capacity for intellect and reasoning displays the most substantial growth between the ages of six and eleven. The onset of formal academic education and the development of reading and writing abilities, to an unknown extent, boost this increase.
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Long-term acute care hospitals are defined by Medicare as having an average inpatient length of stay greater than __________ days.
Long-term acute care hospitals (LTACHs) are defined by Medicare as having an average inpatient length of stay greater than 25 days. These hospitals provide care to patients who have a severe and complex medical condition, and require extended hospitalization.
LTACHs typically provide a higher level of care than a traditional acute care hospital and specialize in the management of patients with chronic, medically complex conditions such as multiple organ failure, sepsis, and ventilator dependency. They have specialized staff, equipment and protocols for the care of these patients and also provide rehabilitation services to help patients regain their independence. These hospitals are usually used as a step-down care from the intensive care unit or as an alternative to skilled nursing facilities for patients who require a higher level of care.
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The nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube for a patient with pancreatitis. What intervention can the nurse provide to allow facilitation of the tube insertion
The nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube for a patient with pancreatitis. The nurse's intervetion is that as the tube is being put in, let the patient drink some water.
A plastic tube is inserted through the nose, down the oesophagus, and into the stomach during a procedure known as nasogastric tubation. A comparable procedure involves inserting a plastic tube into the mouth during orogastric intubation. The NG tube was created by Abraham Louis Levin.
The nose, throat, and stomach are all entered by a small, soft tube known as a nasogastric (NG) tube. The formula is typically given to children who are unable to eat by mouth. Children occasionally receive medicine through a tube.
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Draw a number line and create a scale for the number line in order to plot the points-2,4, and 6.
The line number and the data plot are shown in the accompanying images. The distance from zero is the same for a number's opposite, but in the other direction.
A number line's scale can be created in several ways.Numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4 must appear on the number line for a scale of 1. The figures on the number line will be 0, 2, and 4, which correspond to a scale of 2. Pick your scale accordingly, leaving an equal space between any two integers, and as a result.
What number line symbol would you use to represent 0 6?Ten equal portions should be taken from the number line's range of 0 to 1. Every piece is worth 0.1. On the number line, indicate the sixth point, which is to the right of 0. The 0.6 decimal place on the chart is represented by this point.
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A strategic goal for nursing in the facility developed by the chief nursing officer is to implement an evidence-based practice program. What is an appropriate strategy that can be used by a nurse manager who is beginning to implement an evidence-based practice program on the unit?
The appropriate method for a nurse manager who is just starting to execute an evidence-based practice program is "Soliciting input from staff members". B is the right response.
Early involvement of stakeholders and staff members is essential for projects that will include direct patient care. Stakeholders should be brought in as early as possible. Participation makes it easier to comprehend difficulties and concerns, as well as people's motives and unmet needs.
EBP, which stands for "evidence-based practice," is the use of existing research and the best data available in a fair, balanced, and responsible way to guide policy and practice decisions and improve the outcomes for consumers.
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Studies abbreviations used in text message to identify the author:
forensic linguist
forensic animator
forensic videographer
forensic artist
Answer:
forensic linguist
Explanation:
From the available options provided the only individual position that does this would be a forensic linguist. The responsibilities of this position include analyzing language on text or recorded documents. They do this in order to understand and uncover different details within the document that may help law enforcement solve a crime. This also involves studying abbreviations used in text messages to identify the author, what the abbreviation means, in what context it is being used, hidden meanings, etc. All of which can be highly valuable in a criminal case.
who is a polyvalent nurse
Answer:
A specialist is defined as a person who carries out his/her professional duties in the same surgical ward over two years or more; a polyvalent nurse is defined as one who changes their specialty according to the period established by their hospital or according to the needs at any given moment.
Explanation:
A thorough medication reconciliation will always contain the drug's: Select one: Imprint Shape Size Strength
A thorough medication reconciliation will always contain the drug's strength.
Prescription reconciliation is indeed the way of evaluating a patient's medication orders for all drugs taken by the patient. This reconciliation is performed to eliminate pharmaceutical mistakes including such omissions, duplications, incorrect dose, or drug interactions. It should be performed at every point of care transition where new drugs are prescribed or current orders are revised. Changes in care settings, services, practitioners, or levels of care are examples of transitions.
Medication reconciliation appears to be a simple process. 7 Obtaining and validating the patient's medication history, documenting the patient's medication history, drafting orders for the hospital drug regimen, and producing a medication administration record are all stages for a newly hospitalized patient.
These steps at discharge include assessing the patient's post-discharge pharmaceutical regimen, generating discharge instructions for home medicines, educating the patient, and transferring the medication list to a follow-up physician.
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A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of atopic dermatitis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- "You will need to take the entire prescription of antibiotics even if your condition improves."
- "Your provider may recommend a daily antihistamine to help control your symptoms."
- "You should cleanse your mouth daily with a prescribed mouthwash."
- "Your provider will remove the lesions with solid carbon dioxide."
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of atopic dermatitis. The following statements must be included by the nurse in teaching atopic dermatitis clients:
-"Your provider may recommend a daily antihistamine to help control your symptoms."
What is atopic dermatitis?Atopic dermatitis is a type of dermatitis (eczema) that occurs due to inflammation of the skin. This condition can be accompanied by skin that is red, dry, and cracked. Inflammation usually lasts a long time, even for years.
Atopic dermatitis occurs due to multifactorial interactions, namely genetic (hereditary) factors, environment, impaired skin barrier (protective) function, immunological factors, and infection.
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The nurse is caring for an elderly client with depression who is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which are clinical manifestations that would alert the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication of treatment with the TCA
The client reporting dizziness with movement from a sitting to standing position alerts the nurse to a possible complication of treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA).
This is because an adverse effect of TCAs is orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when a person stands up after sitting or lying down.
This can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and blurred vision. The client describing voiding frequently, with a feeling of the inability to completely drain her bladder is also a possible complication of treatment with a TCA. This is because one of the side effects of TCAs is anticholinergic effects, which can cause urinary retention, frequent urination, and difficulty initiating urination.
It is important for the nurse to assess these clinical manifestations and report them to the physician as they may indicate an adverse drug reaction and may require a dose change or discontinuation of the TCA.
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adaptive equipment are mobility aids or mobility-assistive devices that are designed to enable a patient to _______________.
Adaptive equipment are mobility aids or mobility-assistive devices that are designed to enable a patient to bathing.
An adaptive equipment is a device that assists a impaired or disabled existent in negotiating typical conditioning of diurnal living( ADL), similar as eating, codifying, walking, reading, or driving. Mobility aids, similar as wheelchairs, scooters, trampers, nightsticks, crutches1, prosthetic bias, and orthotic bias.
Adaptive equipment are bias that are used to help bathing, dressing, fixing, toileting, and feeding are tone- care conditioning that are including in the diapason of conditioning of diurnal living( ADLs). An adaptive device is a device that assists a impaired or disabled existent in negotiating typical conditioning of diurnal living( ADL)
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31. Sterile plain sheets are often used to: a. Create a sterile field beneath an extremity b. Cover the hypothermia blanket c. Provide additional coverage and continuity to the sterile field d. A
Sterile plain sheets are often used to create a sterile field beneath an extremity and provide additional coverage and continuity to sterile field which means option A and C is correct.
Sterile plain sheets are used because no fluid can pass through it and so it can be used in surgical areas where hygiene is needed. It is used to keep the objects and equipment clean and sterilized. Sterilization is the process of keeping objects free from infection. It can be done by several methods like boiling, steam sterilization, Hydrogen Peroxide Gas Plasma. The presence of microbes can interfere with the operations and so it is necessary that only sterilized objects are used in the room. Sterile plain sheets is a new alternative to it and they can also be disposed off easily.
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which animal foods are high in carbonhydrate?
Answer:Dairy- This is the one animal food that contains carbohydrate. Milk, cheese, and yogurt contain naturally-occurring lactose. If dairy (like yogurt) is sweetened, then it will also contain added sugar like sucrose (white cane sugar) or fructose and glucose (honey and/or HFCS).
The main source of carbohydrates in livestock feed are grains such as oats, wheat, barley, corn, sorghum etc. forages and hay. Fats are an important part of the animal diet; nevertheless, they are needed in small amounts.
What is an appropriate stretching exercise that addresses a low back arch in an athlete who is training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance
Active kneeling hip flexor stretch is appropriate for addressing a low back arch in an athlete who is training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance.
Hip flexor stretch is the form of exercise that provided various benefits like improved mobility, reduction in pain, improved flexibility and posture. It can be simply called the kneeling exercise where one leg is kneeled down at a time. It can also be done by lying down on the edge of the table.
Strength endurance is the type of muscle strength that requires tension in the muscles for longer durations of time. It is the ability of the body to exert itself but remain active for longer durations of time without suffering any wound or fatigue.
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Adderall and Ritalin are legal stimulants with medical uses. Therefore, they can be used:
A.
Without a prescription
B.
Only as prescribed by a medical professional
C.
For off-label (unapproved) purposes
D.
None of the above
At visit 3, Subject 411, a subject in a clinical trial of a pacemaker with an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) was noted to have a malfunctioning of the ICD sensing system resulting in frequent ICD discharges (shocks). Subject 411 was admitted to the hospital to have the ICD removed and replaced. The investigator should:
The investigator should report this event as an UADE (unanticipated adverse device effect) to the sponsor and IRB within ten working days.
This event is considered unanticipated because the subject had not previously experienced frequent ICD discharges (shocks) and the malfunctioning of the ICD sensing system was not anticipated. Reporting this event is important for patient safety and to ensure that the sponsor and the IRB are aware of any potential hazards of the device.
Additionally, reporting this event within ten working days allows for quicker action on the part of the sponsor and IRB to investigate the cause of the ICD malfunction and take corrective action if necessary. It also allows for the investigation of the ICD device and any potential risks that may be associated with its use.
By reporting this event as an UADE, it will ensure that patient safety is a priority and that any potential risks are monitored and addressed.
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al dishes in your locality
in which of the following positions should a non-traumatic conscious patient, showing signs and symptoms of altered mental status be transported
The basic therapy for respiratory problems is oxygen. If the patient is breathing normally, use a nonrebreather mask at a flow rate of 12 to 15 liters per minute.
Which of the following is one of the first indications that a patient's breathing is inadequate?Visual cues The rate of breathing, aberrant chest wall movement, irregular breathing pattern, and abnormal work of breathing are the visual indicators that are particular to insufficient ventilation.
Which of the following would be the best course of treatment for a patient who is having respiratory problems?The basic therapy for respiratory problems is oxygen. If the patient is breathing normally, use a nonrebreather mask at a flow rate of 12 to 15 liters per minute. If the patient has insufficient breathing, more oxygen should be given in addition to artificial ventilation.
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A nurse is preparing to perform a GA assessment on a newborn. The nurse knows that the results of the assessment should be considered only an estimate. Which factors can influence the examination results
The factors which can influence the GA examination results of the newborn baby are Newborn neurologic disorders.
One of the first assessments which are performed on newborn baby is a baby's Apgar score. It checks the respiratory rate, heart rate, muscle movement and color of the skin and eye of the baby. GA assessment refers to Gestational age assessment. It is determined as the number of weeks between the first day of the mother's last normal menstrual period and the date of delivery. It is important to find this because it can help the doctor to analyze the baby's growth and so the mode of delivery can be determined. GA of less than 37 indicates premature child. It can negatively affect the development and immunity of baby.
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the nurse is providing care for a client with twins during labor. The nurse instructs the client to avoid lying flat on the back. WHich condition does the nurse aim to prevent in the client during labor
The nurse is trying to prevent the condition of Supine hypotension in the client during her labor in pregnancy.
Pregnancy is the condition when the mother's body is nurturing a fetus inside her womb. The responsibility of mother doubles when she is nurturing two fetus inside her. But this also causes number of body aches to the mother because of the heavy weight. It impacts her structure and the way her cervical bone is shaped. In supine hypotension, the blood pressure of the body falls sharply due to which there is lack of breath to the mother. It is advised to the mother to avoid sleeping directly on the back during her pregnancy. Also regular changes in postures helps to keep the vitals intact.
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What should a nurse include in the initial plan of care for a client with the long-standing obsessive-compulsive behavior of handwashing
The plan that should be included in the plan of care for a client with the long-standing obsessive-compulsive behavior (OCD) of handwashing is: development of a routine schedule of activities to reduce the need for the ritualistic behavior.
Obsessive compulsive behavior or OCD is the disease where a person suffers from the persistent recurring thoughts or urges to act in a certain way or perform a certain task. It can be explained as the obsessions leading to compulsions.
Ritualistic behavior is the repetitions of any routine or certain behaviors unconsciously. It is one of the most common symptoms of the disease OCD.
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When a patient is obese or has a thick chest wall, what is difficult to palpate?
A. Grade 4 murmur B. Sternal angle C. JVP D. Apical impulse
When a patient is obese or has a thick chest wall, option D: apical impulse is difficult to palpate.
The best place to measure your heart rate is on your chest, where your apical pulse is located. It is also known as the apex beat and the point of maximal impulse (PMI). Along your arteries are where your other pulse spots are situated. Obesity negatively affects the diastolic function of the heart. Because of different loading conditions and an increased LV mass that may negatively affect the ventricle's passive filling capabilities, obesity can change the LV filling indexes. This can consequently affect apical impulse caused due to affected cardiac output. Thus, option D is the correct choice.
The apex beat, also known as the apical impulse, is the palpable cardiac impulse that is located in the fifth intercostal space, closest to the midclavicular line (MCL), and furthest down on the chest wall. It is typically caused by the LV.
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nurse is reading a journal article about the use of real-time ultrasonography, which allows the health care provider to obtain information about the fetus. The nurse would expect the article to describe which type of information
Nurse is reading a journal article about the use of real-time ultrasonography, and she would expect the article to describe biophysical profile.
A biophysical profile is a antenatal ultrasound evaluation of fetal well- being involving a scoring system, with the score being nominated Manning's score. It's frequently done when anon-stress test is non reactive, or for other obstetrical suggestions.
A fetus or foetus is the future seed that develops from an beast embryo. After the 9 weeks of fertilization, the fetal period is begun. In mortal antenatal development, fetal development begins from the ninth week after fertilization and continues until birth.
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psychology is considered as what type of science?
Answer: social studies, social science.
Explanation:
The nurse is using the pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale to assess a child's level of consciousness. What would the nurse assess
The nurse would assess Grade 5 for verbal response if the child says "no" to all questions.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is a clinical scale that is used to accurately assess a person's degree of consciousness following a brain injury. The GCS evaluates a person's ability to execute eye movements, communicate, and move their body. These three behaviours comprise three scale elements: visual, verbal, and motor.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is presented as a cumulative score (ranging from 3 to 15) as well as the results of each test (E for eye, V for Verbal, and M for Motor). The value of each test should be based on the best response that the individual being tested can offer. Some studies have criticised the GCS, citing the scale's low inter-rater reliability and lack of predictive usefulness.
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The nurse is providing teaching about accidental poisoning to the family of a 3-year-old. The nurse understands that a child of
The nurse understands that a child of this age is at increased risk of accidental ingestion due to a less discriminating sense of taste.
Caustic ingestion happens when a person inadvertently or intentionally consumes a caustic or corrosive material. Depending on the type of the material, the length of exposure, and other conditions, it can cause varied degrees of damage to the oral mucosa, oesophagus, and stomach lining.
Endoscopy of the upper digestive system can identify the degree of the damage, but CT scanning may be more beneficial in determining whether surgery is necessary. During the healing phase, oesophageal strictures may occur, necessitating therapeutic dilatation and the insertion of a stent. Ingestions of acids with pH less than 2 or alkalis with pH greater than 12 can result in the most severe damage.
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