the nurse is providing care for a client with twins during labor. The nurse instructs the client to avoid lying flat on the back. WHich condition does the nurse aim to prevent in the client during labor

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse is trying to prevent the condition of Supine hypotension in the client during her labor in pregnancy.

Pregnancy is the condition when the mother's body is nurturing a fetus inside her womb. The responsibility of mother doubles when she is nurturing two fetus inside her. But this also causes number of body aches to the mother because of the heavy weight. It impacts her structure and the way her cervical bone is shaped. In supine hypotension, the blood pressure of the body falls sharply due to which there is lack of breath to the mother. It is advised to the mother to avoid sleeping directly on the back during her pregnancy. Also regular changes in postures helps to keep the vitals intact.  

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Related Questions

The characteristics of type one diabetes…

Answers

Answer:

Symptoms

Feeling more thirsty than usual.Urinating a lot.Bed-wetting in children who have never wet the bed during the night.Feeling very hungry.Losing weight without trying.Feeling irritable or having other mood changes.Feeling tired and weak.Having blurry vision.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?
a. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active.
b. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
c. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past.
d. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.

Answers

Statement B is correct regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct: PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

A female reproductive system infection is known as pelvic inflammatory disease (the cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries). Women who are sexually active are typically affected by pelvic inflammatory disease. Women who have experienced pelvic inflammatory illness are 6–10 times more likely to experience a tubal pregnancy (a form of ectopic pregnancy). The fetus develops in a fallopian tube rather than the uterus during a tubal pregnancy. The woman's life is in danger during this type of pregnancy, and the fetus is not viable. Therefore, option B is he appropriate answer.

Women typically experience lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and erratic vaginal bleeding. The diagnosis is made using the patient's symptoms, examination of vaginal and cervix secretions, and occasionally ultrasonography. Using condoms and restricting sexual activity to one partner lower the risk of contracting an infection.

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Bioengineered organs can potentially reduce the risk of transplants being rejected by a patient's immune system. What is the best design for a study that examines transplant rejection of bioengineered organs in different ethnic groups

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Compare the frequency of transplant rejection of one organ among different ethnic groups of people.

Biological engineering, often known as bioengineering, is the use of biological concepts and engineering methods to develop practical, tangible, and commercially viable goods. The application of life sciences, physical sciences, mathematics, and engineering concepts to describe and solve issues in biology, medicine, health care, and other domains is known as bioengineering.

Healthy human cells (produced from organ tissue lost during surgery) and biomaterials are used to construct bioartificial organs. A bioartificial kidney, for example, is created by cleverly attaching kidney cells to a ′membrane′, a porous capillary built from artificial polymer fibre. Bioengineers and biomedical engineers commonly perform the following tasks: Create medical equipment and technologies such as artificial internal organs, body part replacements, and diagnostic instruments. Biomedical equipment installation, maintenance, and technical assistance.

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A 20 - year - old woman has had worsening fatigue for the past year . On examination her mucus membranes are pale . No hepatosplenomegaly is present . Her CBC shows a Hgb of 7.1 g / dl . , Het 19.9 % , MCV 67 fl , platelet count 190,000 / uL . , and WBC count 5,400 / uL . There is no history of drug ingestion . Which of the following is the most likely etiology for her findings ?
A. Cobalamin deficiency
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Iron deficiency

Answers

A. Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency is the most likely etiology for her findings.

What is vitamin B12 deficiency?

Vitamin B12 deficiency is a condition in which the body does not have enough vitamin B12 to function properly. Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient that helps to produce red blood cells, maintain the nervous system, and support the production of DNA.

A deficiency in vitamin B12 can cause a wide range of symptoms, including fatigue, weakness, constipation, nerve damage, loss of appetite, weight loss, and a type of anemia called megaloblastic anemia.

There are several causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency:

Malnutrition: not getting enough Vitamin B12 in the diet, people who follow a vegan or vegetarian diet, have a higher risk of developing a deficiency as vitamin B12 is mainly found in animal foods.Lack of intrinsic factor: Some people don't produce enough intrinsic factor, which is a protein that helps the body absorb vitamin B12 from food.Gastrointestinal disorders: such as Crohn's disease, celiac disease, bacterial growth, or surgery that affects the stomach or small intestineMedications: Long-term use of certain medications such as proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and metformin can interfere with the absorption of vitamin B12

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If a hospital patient is given 100 milligrams of medicine which leaves the bloodstream at 14% per hour, how many milligrams of medicine will remain in the system after 10 hours

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If a hospital patient is given 100 milligrams of medicine which leaves the bloodstream at 14% per hour, 24.66 milligrams of medicine will remain in the system after 10 hours.

Bloodstream is the flow or movement of blood throughout the body. Blood carries oxygen, nutrients, and other important substances from the heart, through the blood vessels, to the rest of the body's cells, apkins, and organs. It also helps to get relieve of waste products, similar as carbon dioxide, from the body.

Conventional ultramodern medicine is occasionally called allopathic drug. It involves the use of medicines or surgery, frequently supported by comforting and life measures. Indispensable and reciprocal types of drug include acupuncture, homeopathy, herbal drug, art remedy, traditional Chinese drug, and numerous further.

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A nurse reviews the medication charts of four clients. Which medication prescription will cause the nurse to notify the primary health care provider

Answers

Diabetes insipidus symptoms and signs include severe thirst. producing a lot of light urine. having frequent nighttime urination needs that require getting up.

facial weight gain (moon face) Putting on weight above the collarbone (supraclavicular fat pad) gaining weight on the back of the neck (buffalo hump) Skin changes, notably over the abdomen or axillary region, with easy bruising in the extremities and the appearance of reddish stretch marks (striae). The preferred method for evaluating suspected thyroid nodules is ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration (FNA), and the Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytopathology stratifies the malignancy risk based on FNA results.

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Choose the correct answer:-
uterovaginal prolapse:
1. very painful condition
2. cervix is often prolonged
3. may cause intestinal obstruction in case of large rectocele
4. improve by erect position

Answers

Answer:

2

Explanation:

The cervix is elongated as a result of it's weakness to hold the uterus

By law an 'if you are injured' poster must be displayed. where would you display this poster?

Answers

Answer:

An 'If you are injured" poster is required to be put in a noticeable place so people can see it.

A pleasant 73-year-old male presents to the clinic with his wife. His wife states that she has noted increasingproblems with his memory including forgetting to get some items on his grocery list and misplacing his car keys.You administer the MMSE in the office and he scores 24/30 which is consistent with Mild Dementia per thescoring guidelines. Your best response to his wife is

Answers

Thanks again for the points.

A patient who has asthma and has been suffering from pneumonia that has worsened over several days and is obstructing his airways has begun to hyperventilate. What will this do to his pH balance

Answers

Although hyperventilation aids in eliminating extra carbon dioxide from the body, it is ineffective in lowering the patient's acidic state since pneumonia has impeded gas exchange.

What impact might medications like ACE angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors have on the quizlet's response to dehydration?

What impact might medications like ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors have on the body's reaction to dehydration? Angiotensin-II initiates the body's response to dehydration, hence blocking it will prevent the body from responding to dehydration as it should.

Which would have the biggest impact on a solution's pH?

A strong acid will have the biggest impact on a solution's pH since it lowers the pH and increases the amount of hydrogen ions present in the solution.

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Gottfredson and Hirschi trace the root cause of poor self-control to inadequate: A. nutrition and health care B. intelligence C. child rearing practices D. education

Answers

Self-control issues can be traced back to ineffective parenting methods. Children who don't understand that they can't always get what they want as adults appear to be less able to restrain their urges. So, the correct option is (c) child-rearing practices.

These kids (and adults) want instant pleasure, which might result in criminal or antisocial behaviour down the road. Ineffective parenting methods include-

Encouragement Deficit- A child requires strong support from adoring adults in order to internalize the idea that he has real skills and abilities. Persistent criticism-The relationship between a healthy self-concept and confidence is straightforward.                                                                  Negative comparisons, parental anxiety, unrealistic expectations, and overprotection.

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What is the primary goal of a triage system used by the nurse with patients presenting to the emergency department

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The primary goal of a triage method utilized by nurses with patients arriving to the emergency department is to identify the severity of the client's condition in order to establish priority of care.

In the emergency room, "triage" refers to the procedures used to quickly assess patients' degree of injury or sickness, assign priority, and move each patient to a right facility for care. ED prioritization is a systematic method of sorting and categorizing patients based on the severity of their sickness or damage.

The major purpose of the triage method is to assist the ED nurse in prioritising care based on the acuity of the patient, with clients with more serious illnesses or injuries examined first. The core survey includes questions on the airway, breathing, and circulation. The primary purpose is not to determine response during the disability stage of the primary survey. Triage does not aim to evaluate the ED's resources.

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If Miguel does not order all the supplies, how will he know which ones should be ordered?

Answers

Answer: by checking his list

Explanation:

What type of data collection might be best to estimate whether a new medicine is more effective in curing the common cold than aspirin

Answers

Experiment is the type of data collection which is best to estimate whether a new medicine is more effective in curing the common cold than aspirin.

Aspirin, also known as acetylsalicylic acid, is a nonsteroidalanti-inflammatory medicine used to reduce pain, fever, and/ or inflammation, and as an antithrombotic. Specific seditious conditions which aspirin is used to treat include Kawasaki complaint, pericarditis, and rheumatic fever.

Experiment plays numerous places in wisdom. One of its important places is to test propositions and to give the base for scientific knowledge. It can also call for a new proposition, either by showing that an accepted proposition is incorrect, or by flaunting a new miracle that's in need of explanation.

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A heath care provider is reviewing the history of a patient who is about to begin furosemide (Lasix) therapy to treat hypertension. Which of the following drugs that the patient takes should alert the health care professional to take further action?
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) for a seizure disorder.
B. Lithium (lithobid) for bipolar disorder
C. Warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent blood clots
D. Erythromycin (erythrocin) for bronchitis

Answers

The drug regarding which patient should alert the health care professional is Lithium (lithobid) for bipolar disorder

The healthcare provider must be aware of any potential interactions between these two drugs if a patient is receiving lithium for bipolar disorder and is about to start furosemide (Lasix) therapy to treat hypertension. The body's electrolyte balance, particularly the quantities of sodium and potassium, can be impacted by both lithium and furosemide.

Because of this, the healthcare practitioner should carefully check the patient's electrolyte levels while they are taking these two drugs together and may need to change the dosage or frequency of one or both prescriptions. The patient should also be told about any dangers and adverse effects of taking these medications together by the healthcare professional.

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a patient diagnosed with cholecystitis reports pain in the back and scapular areas. What does the nurse infer about the type of pain from the assessment

Answers

From the evaluation, the nurse deduces what kind of pain the patient is experiencing.                                        

When evaluating a patient with opioid-related oversedation, many nurses pay close attention to the patient's pulse oximetry, blood pressure, & respiration rate. Sedation, lightheadedness, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and diaphoresis are among the most frequently reported side effects. Patients with acute and severe bronchial asthma and hypercarbia should not use morphine sulphate. Any patient who has paralytic ileus or who is suspected of having it should not take morphine sulphate. The principal danger of morphine sulphate is respiratory depression. Depression of the central nervous system, nauseousness, vomiting, and urine retention are some other frequent adverse effects. One of the most severe opiate-related side effects that is crucial to watch out for in the preoperative patient population is respiratory depression.

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A client with sickle cell crisis reports severe generalized pain. Which intervention is a priority for correcting vaso occlusion

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The intervention which is a priority for correcting vasocclusion is administer high-low IV fluids.

Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a set of hereditary blood diseases. The most frequent kind is sickle cell anaemia. It causes a change in the oxygen-carrying protein haemoglobin, which is present in red blood cells. Under some conditions, this results in a hard, sickle-like form. The symptoms of sickle cell disease usually appear between the ages of 5 and 6 months.

A variety of health issues may arise, including pain episodes (known as a sickle cell crisis), anaemia, swelling in the hands and feet, bacterial infections, and stroke. Long-term discomfort can develop as people age. In the industrialised world, the average life expectancy ranges from 40 to 60 years.

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the nurse is caring for a client who has just expired. which action will the nurse perform?

Answers

A deceased person's body is always treated with dignity. Every nurse has an obligation to accommodate their patient’s wishes regarding their end-of-life care preferences. The nurse ensures that each patient's dying process goes as smoothly as possible. Here are some of the steps that every nurse takes when caring for a client who has recently died.


Maintain confidentiality throughout the procedure.
Purchase or gather supplies for a death pack.
Remove your gloves and wash your hands.
Put corpse eyes closed.
Put the resident's dentures in his or her mouth.
Make a full bed bath available.
Put on a clean gown and place a pad in the perineum.
Tubes or lines may or may not be removed, depending on the coroner's policy and instructions. Before you remove any of them, double-check.
Wrap the body in a sheet depending on the policy.
Place the corpse in the plastic bag provided.  
Attach identification or wear a tag or bracelet.
With the assistance of coworkers, close the bag, tie the zipper shut, and slide the body onto a morgue cart.

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A patient with a hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL (78 g/L) has palpitations, a heart rate of 105 bpm, and an increased reticulocyte count. Considering the severity of anemia, what manifestation should be the priority for the nurse to evaluate first

Answers

PAY ATTENTION TO CLASS. THIS IS CONCERNING!

Considering the severity of anemia, the priority manifestation for the nurse to evaluate first should be the patient's symptoms related to cardiac function. The patient's hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL (78 g/L) is considered severe anemia, and with the reported increased heart rate of 105 bpm and palpitations, there is a high risk for cardiac distress. Additionally, the reticulocyte count indicates that the body is responding to the anemia by producing new red blood cells, however, as the anemia is severe, it is unable to compensate the oxygen demand.

Therefore, cardiac function should be closely monitored and evaluated, as severe anemia can cause the heart to work harder in order to pump enough oxygen to the body's tissues, potentially leading to cardiac distress or even heart failure. It is necessary to closely monitor vital signs, chest pain or discomfort, shortness of breath and any changes in the patient's cardiac status, as well as administering oxygen therapy as required. Also, close collaboration with the medical team is important to implement the correct treatment and ensure the patient's safety.

A patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes requests a refill of a prescription for extended-release glipizide. The patient is approximately 15 days late in refilling the prescription. The patient, when asked if the medication is being taken as directed, says, "Yes, I always take it at breakfast, but many days I simply don't have time to eat before I leave for work." How should the pharmacy technician respond?

Answers

Ask the patient to speak with the pharmacist to clarify the prescription directions.

Diabetes is a long-term (chronic) illness that affects how your body converts food into energy. The majority of the food you consume is converted by your body into sugar (glucose), which is then released into your circulation. Your pancreas releases insulin when your blood sugar levels rise.

What causes diabetes primarily?

Most kinds of diabetes lack a recognized precise etiology. Sugar builds up in the bloodstream in every situation. This occurs as a result of inadequate insulin production by the pancreas. Diabetes of either type 1 or type 2 may result from a mix of hereditary and environmental causes.

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Dr. Peters is discussing a report with his patient Jessica. The report indicates that Jessica needs surgery. Jessica becomes very tense on hearing this news. What type of skill should Dr. Peters make use of to calm Jessica

Answers

The kind of skill Dr. Peters to calm Jessica when Jessica was very tense to be operated on is a sense of empathy.

The doctor-patient relationship is the relationship between the professional (doctor) and the client (patient). Creating a good doctor-patient relationship is mastering good communication techniques with patients. The use of patient-doctor communication is the most important thing which is called the Art of Medicine.

Doctors are not only needed when sick but when healthy are doctors they are much needed to prevent disease or treat and improve the patient's physical and psychological health. Doctors who can do this are family doctors, who have studied and treated diseases to protect people's health from birth to old age. The doctor-patient relationship is one of trust, so without mutual trust between the two, treatment may not be carried out properly.

This question is multiple choice:

A. assertivenessB. decision makingC. team-buildingD. empathy

The correct answer is D

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A client in a prenatal clinic states tells the nurse she has a vaginal discharge and asks about douching. Which rule is safe regarding douching during pregnancy

Answers

A prenatal clinic states tells the nurse she has a VD

Routine douching is not advised rule is safe regarding douching during pregnancy

How frequently should you Routine douching?

once or twice a week.

Although there is no ideal number, it is preferable to keep it to only once every day. Avoid doing it more than twice or three times per week. Consult your doctor immediately away if you're unsure how to perform it, harm yourself while doing it, experience any negative consequences from private douching, or exhibit signs of an STD.Douching once a week is recommended?

Occasionally, but only every blue moon? No. Douching can alter the bacteria in your personal bacterial balance, which can lead to an infection.

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Which of the following patients would be a candidate now for revaccination with PPSV23?
a. a 66-year-old woman who received the first dose of PPSV23 at 60 years of age
b. a 68-year-old man who received the first dose of PPSV23 at 64 years of age
c. a 71-year-old man who received the first dose of PPSV23 at 65 years of age
d. A 45-year-old woman without a spleen who received the first dose of PPSV23 at 42 years of age

Answers

A) A 66-year-old woman who had her primary PPSV23 treatment when she was 60 years old would be a possibility for PPSV23 revaccination at about this time.

Who should to obtain PPSV23?

23 different types of bacteria that cause pneumoniae illness are safeguarded from by PPSV23. The PPSV23 vaccine is advised for all persons aged 65 and over. Those who are 2 years of age or older who already have several symptoms that put them at risk for pneumococcal meningitis.

When must PPSV23 be administered?

The second dosage of PPSV23 to be provided at least 5 years after the first prescription, while the initial dose of PPSV23 to be delivered at least 8 weeks after each and every prior dose of the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine.

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While assessing the airway patency of a client after a bomb blast, the nurse suspects severe brain injury and gives a score of 7 using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). Which intervention is most appropriate for the client

Answers

The intervention most appropriate for the client is Preparing for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a clinical scale that is used to accurately assess a person's degree of consciousness following a brain injury. The GCS evaluates a person's ability to execute eye movements, communicate, and move their body. These three behaviours comprise the scale's three elements: visual, verbal, and motor.

The GCS score of an individual can range from 3 (totally unresponsive) to 15. (responsive). This score is used to direct urgent medical care following a brain injury (such as a car accident), as well as to monitor and track the degree of awareness of hospitalised patients.

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The physician orders betaxolol (Betoptic) for a patient being treated for glaucoma. Ordered is 2 drops of 0.5% solution twice daily. Your supply is 0.25% suspension, so you will administer ____ drops at each dose?

Answers

As the strength has halved, you will double the drops - so 4 drops will be administered at each dose

4 drops will be administered daily.

The strength has halved so the dose will be doubled.Betaxolol are eye drops used to control increased pressure within the eye.

What is glaucoma?It is a condition that damages eye optic nerve.It is linked with the pressure buildup inside the eye.It tends to run in the families.

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A client reads the nutritional chart and follows it accurately. The nurse also notes that the client understands the need for a balanced diet and its relationship with a quick recovery. In which domain is the client demonstrating successful learning

Answers

The client is demonstrating successful learning in the cognitive domain.

The cognitive domain deals with the acquisition and use of knowledge, including the ability to understand and process information. In this scenario, the client is demonstrating successful learning by reading the nutritional chart and following it accurately, as well as understanding the need for a balanced diet and its relationship with a quick recovery. This shows that the client has acquired and processed the necessary information, and is able to apply it to their own health and well-being. The cognitive domain also includes critical thinking, problem-solving, and decision-making, which can be applied to the client's health choices.

It is important to note that there are other domains of learning such as affective, psychomotor and physiologic, each of them focus on different aspects of learning and development.

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Which of the following statements best describes the electrical events recorded by an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
A) the sum of the electrical activity of the autorhythmic cells only
B) the sum of the electrical activity of the contractile cells only
C) the sum of the electrical activity of all cells in the heart
D) the sum of the electrical activity of all the cells of the body

Answers

C) All of the heart's electrical activity added collectively. The electrocardiogram's electric signals are characterized by this expression (ECG).

What does the ECG do, and why?

One of the most efficient and straightforward techniques for evaluating the heart is an echocardiogram (ECG). A few regions on the chest, arms, and legs include electrodes—small plastic patches that adhere to the skin.

What happens most frequently during an ECG?

The P wave, Q wave, R wave, S wave, T wave, and U wave are among the waves that can be seen on an ECG. Interval is the amount of time before two distinctive ECG events. The PR interval, QRS interval, QT interval, and RR interval are among the intervals routinely measured on an ECG.

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Select the correct answer. It may be healthier to be slightly overweight than to experience weight cycling. A. True B. False

Answers

Choose the right response. It is true that maintaining a stable weight rather than experiencing weight cycling may be healthier.

Weight cycling: what is it?

Yo-yo dieting, often known as weight cycling, is the practise of intermittently losing and gaining weight. Weight-loss therapies are useless for all but a small number of people over the long term, according to a large body of studies. In reality, it's quite uncommon for someone to "reduce weight and keep it off."

For instance, a 2007 evaluation of long-term weight-reduction trials (Mann et al. 2007; CW for weight-stigmatizing terminology) discovered that the average weight loss maintained across therapies was only a few pounds, meaning that persons who began in the "obese" BMI category stayed there.

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two different subatomic particles are describe below : Particle Y carries a positive charge. Particles C orbits the nucleos which stament is true

Answers

Answer:

It is not clear from the information provided which statement is true. Could you please provide more context or clarify the question?

The DRIs tell you how much of each nutrient you need and help you choose foods that will meet these needs. T/F

Answers

The DRI tells you how much of each nutrient you need and helps you choose foods that will meet these needs. This is true because DRI will provide recommendations according to our body's nutritional needs.

What is DRI?

The Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) is a nutritional recommendation system from the Institute of Medicine (IOM), National Academies (United States).

DRI is an umbrella term for a set of reference values ​​used to plan and assess the nutritional intake of healthy people that varies according to age and sex.

Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) include two sets of nutritional intake goals for individuals, namely the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) and Adequate Intake (AI).

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a funeral(since the element in the domain is repeated.1) {(-1, 8), (0, 15), (1,-4), (2, 0)} 2) {(-5,2), (5,2), (0, -3), (3,-8)} 3) {(-2, 7), (6, 2), (-2,-3), (0, 9)}it is a functionbecause there is not anyPoints which have theX-Coordinate and differeny-Coordinates.4) {(7,2), (4,-6), (2,-2), (4, -9)} 5) {(2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2,6)}Practice: Determining if a Relation is a Function the Siven6) {(1,-4), (2,-4), (3,-4), (4-4)} Subtract 4 from 1/6 of 42 a sum of money is divided among two friends in the ratio 4:11 if the smaller amount is $420, determine the larger amount? Who said we have the right to life liberty and the pursuit of happiness? How did this help support the war effort during World War II Volunteerism, Enlistment, and Patriotism The following information was taken from Cody Co. s accounting records for the year ended December 31, year 2: Decrease in raw materials inventory $ 15,000 Increase in finished goods inventory 35,000 Raw material purchased 430,000 Direct labor payroll 200,000 Factory overhead 300,000 Freight-out 45,000 There was no work in process inventory at the beginning or end of the year. Codys year 2 cost of goods sold is a. $895,000 b. $910,000 c. $950,000 d. $955,000 A shopping mall grosses $625,000 / month. If the market value of this property is $52,000,000, what is its Gross Income Multiplier (GIM) Does parallel programming always improve the performance of an application over sequential programming? According to the Katznelson text, the primary check on the interest group advantages of business interests is A manufacturer of aerospace products purchased four flexible assembly cells for $500,000 each.Delivery and insurance charges were $38,000 and installation of the cells cost another $52,000.Required:a. Determine the cost basis of the four cells.b. What is the class life of the cells?c. What is the MACRS depreciation in year seven?d. If the cells are sold to another company for $140,000 each at the end of year seven, how much is the recaptured depreciation?The cost basis of the four cells is thousand.(Round to nearest whole number) What does the Latin word AUDIO mean?I vineI conqueredI seeI hear La Boheme Where is Act 2 located?Describe the location for Act2Describe what happens in Act2 In his physical education class, Jeff noticed that his heart rate was above normal range when he ran a mile. Based on this data, what would be the MOST appropriate fitness goal for Jeff Find the LCM X^2+X,X^21,X^2X The ratio of yellow houses to white houses on a street is 18 to 26.Simplify the ratio.Enter your answer by filling in the boxes.to HELP ME ASAP AND I MEAN ASAP Be as explicit as you can in describing how the covalent bond between an atom of Chlorine and an atom of Iodine forms. (What happens to the electrons, which electrons are involved, and what allows this to happen MUST all be part of your answer to receive full credit.) Can somebody skilled with Spanish give me some backup with this work? If you could that'd be much appreciated! What happens when you log an e? Calculate where an additional 15kg pile of bricks would need to be placed to balance the beam (shown below). Show all calculations.