The trapezius is a large paired surface muscle that extends


to the scapula and the humerus


upper part of the floor of the region known as the cubital fossa


longitudinally from the occipital bone


on the front of the upper arm

Answers

Answer 1

The first statement describes the trapezius muscle correctly as a large paired muscle that extends to the scapula and the humerus.

What is Muscles?

Muscles are specialized tissues in the body that are responsible for producing movement and maintaining posture. They are made up of bundles of muscle fibers that are capable of contracting and relaxing in response to nerve impulses. Muscles can be classified into three main types: skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles. Skeletal muscles are attached to bones and are responsible for voluntary movements such as walking, running, and lifting. Smooth muscles are found in the walls of internal organs such as the stomach and blood vessels and are responsible for involuntary movements.

The second statement describes the brachialis muscle, which is located in the upper part of the floor of the region known as the cubital fossa. The third statement describes the trapezius muscle, as it extends longitudinally from the occipital bone. The fourth statement describes the biceps brachii muscle, which is located on the front of the upper arm.

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Related Questions

Which of these is the correct breakdown and translation of the medical term percutaneous?
Oper (inside) + cutane (nail) + ous (condition) = condition inside the nail
Oper (beneath) + cutane (skin) + ous (inflammation) = inflammation beneath the skin
Oper (through) + cutane (nail) + ous (pertaining to) = pertaining to through the nail
Oper (through) + cutane (skin) + ous (pertaining to) = pertaining to through the skin
Oper (beneath) + cutane (nail)+ ous (condition)= condition beneath the nail

Answers

The definition of percutaneous in medical terminology. (per-kyoo-TAY-nee-us) A medication applied topically or as an injection that passes through the skin.

What does the term "percutaneous surgery" mean?

Percutaneous denotes a route through the skin. A pathway from the skin just on back to a kidney is made possible by the surgery. The surgeon locates and removes kidney stones using specialised tools that are inserted through a small catheter in your back.

What is the medical term's word root?

A medical term's root or stem is typically taken from a Greek and Latin word or verb. The fundamental meaning of the phrase is expressed by this root. Yet, frequently a prefix (at the start of the phrase) or a suffix will be added to change that meaning (at the end of the word).

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What is the difference between laboratory furniture and laboratory fitting

Answers

Answer: Furniture includes more substantial items such as movable office furniture. Fixtures are anything that may be secured, such as cubicle partitions or attached shelving, that have no permanent connection to the structure or building.

Explanation: Hope this helps!!

Which describes a warm up protocol

Answers

A common warm-up protocol typically includes light cardio activity followed by active/static stretching and dynamic stretching.

What is warm-up protocol

A warm-up protocol is a series of exercises or activities that are designed to prepare the body for physical activity or exercise. The goal of a warm-up protocol is to increase blood flow to the muscles, raise the body temperature, and prepare the muscles, joints, and nervous system for the upcoming activity.

A typical warm-up protocol may include light cardiovascular exercise such as jogging or jumping jacks, followed by dynamic stretching exercises that involve moving the muscles through a range of motion.

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Failure to practice according to legal and ethical standards can lead to _____.

default

liability

isolation

delisting

Answers

Answer: liability

Explanation:

Failure to practice according to legal and ethical standards can lead to liability.

Liability is where the other party as responsibility for injuries a patient may face due to their negligence. This means, the health care provider will be legally responsible for their mistakes.

How do you use prompting strategies and naturalistic teaching approaches

Answers

Prompting strategies and naturalistic teaching approaches are often used in special education and therapy to help individuals with developmental disabilities.

What are teaching approaches?

Here are some examples of how these strategies can be used:

Prompting strategies:

Prompting involves providing cues or assistance to the individual to help them initiate or complete a task. There are several types of prompting strategies, including:

Verbal prompts: providing verbal instructions or cues to the individual

Visual prompts: using pictures, symbols, or other visual aids to prompt the individual

Physical prompts: physically guiding the individual through the task or activity

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6. Which typically occurs first in the birthing process?
The baby is pushed out of the uterus.
The mother begins producing breast milk.
The doctor cuts the umbilical cord.
The placenta is pushed out of the uterus.

Answers

the baby is pushed out of the uterus
The baby is pushed out of the uterus

For an anesthesiologist
I. JOB DESCRIPTION
• Describe the care/service provided by the healthcare professional
• Describe the limits of authority and responsibility - legislated “scope of practice” for
this health care career
• Describe the “Code of Ethics” for this health care occupation
II. EDUCATION /REGISTRATION/CERTIFICATION
• Describe the educational requirements for the profession/occupation
• Identify at least two different educational institutions/schools offering the program.
• State how much time it takes to complete the program
• Describe the approximate cost for each of the educational institutions
• What is the minimum degree or certification that can be earned for this health care
career?
• Identify the professional certification or registration required
III. JOB OUTLOOK AND EMPLOYMENT
• What is the job availability for this profession? How many jobs are expected to
become available?
• Growth trends in the field: How much is the profession growing?
• Number of jobs advertised locally for example in the Sunday Herald or other
publication
• Is experience required for the jobs? How much? Explain.
• Salaries - Entry level and with experience
• Advancement opportunities, two or more, with or without additional education
5
HSC 0003, Health Care Career Paper (Rev. 7/2021,DF)
IV. PROFESSIONAL ACTIVITIES
• Local, State or National Professional Organization and cost to join as a student.
• Professional journal with publication address and cost.
• Are Continuing Educational Units (CEUs) required for this profession? How many and
how often?
• Describe two or more ways (not course subjects), that members of a professional
organization can gain continuing education requirements and earn CEUs

Answers

An anesthesiologist is a medical doctor who specializes in the care of patients undergoing surgical procedures or other medical interventions that require anesthesia.

What is anesthesiologist?

The services provided by an anesthesiologist include:

Preoperative evaluation: Before a surgery or procedure, the anesthesiologist evaluates the patient's medical history, current medications, and any underlying medical conditions to determine the best anesthesia plan for the patient.

Anesthesia administration: The anesthesiologist administers various types of anesthesia such as general anesthesia, regional anesthesia, or local anesthesia based on the patient's needs and the type of procedure.

Intraoperative management: During the surgery, the anesthesiologist monitors the patient's vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation to ensure the patient's safety and comfort.

Postoperative care: After the surgery, the anesthesiologist manages the patient's pain and provides other supportive care as needed.

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Improved quality is equal to increased productivity and lower cost, why?

Answers

Answer:

Improved quality is equal to increased productivity and lower cost because when products or services are of higher quality, there are fewer defects or errors which lead to less time and resources spent on correcting those defects. This increases productivity as workers can focus on producing more and better products rather than fixing mistakes.

What is The purpose of different health care insurances? ​ ​ ​

Answers

Answer:

The purpose of different health care insurances is to help individuals and families pay for their medical expenses, including doctor visits, hospital stays, prescription medications, and other health-related services.

There are several types of health care insurances available, each with its own purpose and benefits.

Private health insurance: This type of insurance is purchased by individuals or provided by employers. It can cover a wide range of medical services and may have different coverage levels, premiums, and deductibles.

Medicare: This is a federal health insurance program for people who are 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease. It has different parts, including Part A (hospital insurance), Part B (medical insurance), Part C (Medicare Advantage), and Part D (prescription drug coverage).

Medicaid: This is a joint federal and state program that provides health insurance to people with low income and limited resources. It covers a wide range of medical services, including doctor visits, hospital stays, and prescription medications.

Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP): This is a federal-state partnership that provides health insurance to children in families who earn too much to qualify for Medicaid but cannot afford private health insurance.

Military health care: This is health care coverage provided to active duty service members, veterans, and their families through different programs, including TRICARE.

Overall, the purpose of health care insurance is to provide financial protection and access to medical services for individuals and families. Different types of health care insurances can cater to different needs and circumstances, ensuring that people have options to choose from to suit their health care needs and budget.

Identify two (2) factors (physical or environmental) that could have contributed to Mrs Duncan fall and explain these factors in relation to underlying pathophysiology. Support your points with relevant literature.

Answers

The majority all  result of a combination of acute mediation risks factors that increase the chance to fall and falling factors. Predisposing risk factors old age, dementia, psychiatric medications, and specific shoes.

What does an injury's pathophysiology entail?

Infection, trauma, or ischemia-reperfusion injury are recognised as the three primary effectors in the pathophysiology for acute sickness and injury. The systemic inflammation reaction syndrome (SIRS), which is a widespread response to the morbid event, can be produced by any one of them acting alone or in conjunction with the other two.

What is the pathophysiological mechanism underlying a pathological fracture?

Alterations in skeletal biomechanics as a result of pathologic bone cause pathologic fractures, which can be caused by original malignant tumors, benign lesions, metastases, or underlying metabolic problems.

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In 2001, the United Nations introduced what goals as part of then-UN secretary general Kofi Annan's Road Map toward development?

Answers

The MDGs were intended to be achieved by 2015, and progress toward these goals was monitored and reported on by the UN. The MDGs have since been replaced by the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs),

What is development?

In 2001, the United Nations introduced the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) as part of then-UN Secretary General Kofi Annan's Road Map toward development.

The MDGs were a set of eight goals aimed at reducing poverty, hunger, and disease and promoting education, gender equality, and environmental sustainability. The specific goals were:

Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

Achieve universal primary education

Promote gender equality and empower women

Reduce child mortality

Improve maternal health

Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases

Ensure environmental sustainability

Develop a global partnership for development

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What is meant by the “autonomy of patients”?

Autonomy means that medical support staff have no say in developing medical solutions.

Autonomy means that a doctor has the right to make choices for patients.

Autonomy means that a patient has the right to make his own choices.

Autonomy means that a patient must carry out the doctor's instructions without deviation.

Answers

The correct answer to your question is C) Autonomy means that a patient has the right to make his own choices.

Autonomy is where a patient is capable of making his or her own decision. In the medical field, bodily autonomy is extremely important in making decisions that might affect the welfare of a patient. The only time autonomy may be restricted from a patient is when the patient is incapable of making a decision on their own. If this were to happen, a power of attorney will leave family members capable of medical decisions from that point forward.

4. Jill is focused on improving her flexibility and her muscles' ability to move through a full range of motion. What fitness class should Jill look for?
O A. Yoga
O B. Weightlifting
O C. HIIT
D. Cycling

Answers

The answer is Yoga.

Yoga poses can help to enhance flexibility as the body is encouraged to hold yoga stretches for a period of time, allowing muscles to go deeper into the stretch.

What is the obligation of a medical professional that can help a patient make good choices
about healthcare?

A health professional has no obligation to help a patient make an informed choice.

A health professional has no right to help a patient make an informed choice.
check

A health professional has the obligation to help a patient make an informed choice.

A health professional has the obligation to make informed choices for a patient.

Answers

The correct answer is D) A health professional has the obligation to help a patient make an informed choice.

As a health care professional, it is your job to make sure the patient has reasonable options. You are 100% allowed to help your patient make an informed choice by stating statistics and facts. However, you can not make the decision for them.

Which skill set is relied on when planning a health-related advocacy project?


active-listening skills

goal-setting skills

conflict-resolution skills

decision-making skills

Answers

Active listening skills are the set of abilities you'll rely on when you plan a health-related advocating initiative.

What is active-listening skills?

Active listening is a communication technique that involves paying close attention to what a person is saying, both verbally and non-verbally, and demonstrating that you are fully engaged in the conversation.

Active listening skills are important in both personal and professional settings, as they allow you to better understand the thoughts and feelings of others, build stronger relationships, and resolve conflicts more effectively.

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video 3 stressed out based on the new experience of anthony and mercedes what advic would you give to a new student at your school?

Answers

My recommendation to a new student at your school would be to concentrate on creating a support structure and asking for assistance when necessary in light of Anthony and Mercedes' experiences in video 3.

What are the benefits associated with starting a new school?

Starting at a new school can be difficult, but with the help of others, it can be made less difficult. It's crucial to make an effort to establish relationships with classmates, instructors, and other school personnel.

It can be a wonderful way to meet new people and create a sense of community to join clubs, sports teams, or other extracurricular activities.

Also important is asking for assistance when you need it. If you need assistance with your schoolwork or adjusting to the new school environment, you are free to ask instructors, counselors, or other members of the faculty.

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explain the following
1 Preservation is a means of saving food for future use.
2 preserved food have a definite keeping time.

pls answer, today is the deadline

Answers

Answer: 1. Preservation refers to the process of treating food in a way that helps to maintain its quality, nutritional value, and safety over a prolonged period. The primary objective of preservation is to extend the shelf life of food so that it can be stored and consumed at a later time. There are various methods of food preservation, such as drying, smoking, salting, canning, and freezing, that are used to prevent spoilage by bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms.

2. Preserved food has a definite keeping time because the preservation process does not completely stop the chemical reactions that can lead to food spoilage. While preserving food can slow down the rate of spoilage, it does not completely stop it. As such, most preserved foods have a shelf life that is determined by the method of preservation used and the storage conditions. For instance, canned foods can typically be stored for several years, while dried foods and smoked meats have a shorter shelf life of a few months to a year. It is essential to follow the storage instructions provided for each type of preserved food to ensure that they are safe to eat and maintain their quality over time.

When performing procedure coding, it is acceptable to code directly from the inc
process.

Answers

When coding a method, it is not advised to work directly from the inc process. Thus, this claim is untrue.

Why is it contraindicated to execute procedure coding right from the inc process?

The surgical incision, or the inc process, is just one part of the surgery and does not contain enough details to for correct coding of the complete procedure. To identify the precise operations carried out and the methods employed, it is crucial to check the whole medical record, including the operating report, while performing procedure coding. To guarantee correct and comprehensive coding, the coder should also refer to any appropriate coding rules and guidelines. Coding directly from the inc process could result in improper coding, which might therefore lead to inaccurate billing.

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When performing procedure coding, it is acceptable to code directly from the inc process. True or false?

Course administration
Course administration
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answered
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Question 2
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answered
Competencies
All of the following are characteristics of x-rays except:
Select one:
CA. cause fluorescence.
O B. long wavelengths.
O C. cause ionization.
O D. invisible form of radiant energy.

Answers

Explanation:

The answer to question 2 is B. long wavelengths. All of the other options are characteristics of x-rays: they cause fluorescence, cause ionization, and are an invisible form of radiant energy.

1. Thinking Critically: Read at least two opposite sources and write at least 150
words on the science and ethics of cochlear implants. Evaluate the impact of
the contention that deafness is a cultural reality to be honored, not
manipulated. What would you do if you faced with deafness for yourself or a
child under your care? (150+ words)

Answers

Cochlear implants are electronic devices that are surgically implanted into the inner ear to provide a sense of sound to people with severe hearing loss or deafness.

Which science is behind cochlear implants?

The science behind cochlear implants is well-established, with studies showing that they can improve hearing and speech perception in the majority of users.

However, the ethics of cochlear implants is a contentious issue, with some members of the Deaf community viewing deafness as a cultural identity rather than a disability. They argue that deafness should be respected as a unique way of experiencing the world and that efforts to "cure" it through cochlear implants are a form of cultural erasure.

On the other hand, proponents of cochlear implants argue that they are a valuable tool for improving the quality of life of people with hearing loss, particularly children who may face social and educational challenges due to their deafness.

If faced with deafness for myself or a child under my care, I would carefully consider all options, including cochlear implants, sign language, and other forms of assistive technology. Ultimately, the decision would depend on individual circumstances and preferences, and would need to take into account both the medical and cultural aspects of deafness.

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Drag each tile to the correct box.
Put the jobs mentioned below in order from the highest to lowest level of education of the professional support service personnel.
Olga has a master's degree in physical
therapy,
but is not licensed yet. She creates
therapeutic
plans that her supervisor, a licensed
physical
therapist checks before administrating
them.
Jennifer is a student of physical therapy.
She works in a school part time under the
supervision of a licensed physical
therapist.

Answers

Olga's job demands more training and experience than Jennifer's employment does.

Who is physical therapist?

A physical therapist, also referred to as a physiotherapist, is a trained healthcare professional with a license who focuses on musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, and cardiovascular disorders. The patients that physical therapists treat are of all ages.

The following positions are listed in order of professional support service personnel's highest to lowest level of education:

Olga, a physical therapist with a master's degree

Physical therapy student Jennifer works part-time under a certified physical therapist's supervision.

Olga has already finished a master's degree in physical therapy, which is a higher level of study, whilst Jennifer is pursuing a degree in the discipline. Olga is also in charge of developing the treatment strategies, and Jennifer is working under the guidance of a certified physical therapist.

As a result, Olga's job demands more training and experience than Jennifer's employment does.

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After choosing the best solution, an individual must
develop an action plan.
evaluate solutions.
define the problem.
implement an action plan.

Answers

The correct order for these steps is:

Define the problem.Evaluate solutions.Choose the best solution.Develop an action plan.Implement an action plan.

What is then first step?

Defining the problem is the first step in problem-solving because it helps to clarify the issue at hand and identify the root cause. Once the problem is clearly defined, the next step is to generate and evaluate possible solutions. After evaluating the options, the best solution is selected.

The next stage is to create an action plan, which entails breaking down the selected solution into SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound) steps.

Finally, the issue is fixed by putting the action plan into practice. To make sure that the intended outcomes are attained, it is crucial to track the development and assess the effectiveness of the action plan both during and after implementation.

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Mr. A is a surgery patient who has a very high body mass index. During your assessment, you should:
A. Assess skin folds for any problems, especially incontinence associated dermatitis, pressure areas due to tubes/devices/chairs, and other issues.
B. Assess albumin/pre-albumin levels and nutritional intake
C. Obtain assistance when moving the patient
D. A and C
E. All of the above

Answers

Answer:

Answer: E) All of the above.

2. The route of administration used for a drug depends on the intended use of the drug. What route of administration would Martha expect for each of the following illnesses or medications (oral, topical, inhaled, sublingual, mucous membrane, or parenteral route)? Why? a. Annual flu vaccination b. Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack e. Hyperlipidemia d. Nitroglycerin used for angina e. Dermatitis f. Allergic rhinitis g. Insulin h. Tinea pedis i. Conjunctivitis​

Answers

For  Annual flu vaccination, the most common route of administration for flu vaccination is via injection, which is a parenteral route.

Why is route of administration important?

Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack: The most effective and common route of administration for bronchodilators during an acute asthma attack is inhalation because it delivers the medication directly to the lungs, where it can act quickly.

Hyperlipidemia: Oral route is the most common route of administration for medication to treat hyperlipidemia because these medications need to be metabolized by the liver.

Nitroglycerin used for angina: Nitroglycerin is commonly administered sublingually because this route of administration allows for rapid absorption and onset of action.

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7)
At your acute care organization, pressure injury risk assessment facility protocols stipulate the frequency of pressure injury risk assessment and reassessment. Assume that your hospital protocols follow IHI recommendations and reflects common practice at most hospitals. Following protocol, you should:
A. Assess for pressure injury risk on admission and perform skin assessments daily
B. Reassess pressure injury risk weekly
C. Perform a daily skin assessment and a risk assessment if warranted
D. Perform a skin assessment every shift, for every patient

Answers

Answer:

A. Assess for pressure injury risk on admission and perform skin assessments daily.

The impact of natural disasters are only seen among vulnerable population
TRUE OR FALSE

Answers

Answer: I believe this is True

Explanation: Research indicates they may also have trouble getting access to housing and other resources. The stress linked to lack of resources may have emotional and behavioral health consequences. People of lower SES after a disaster may be more likely to experience distress and depression.

Please give brainliest if correct!! <3

What picture comes to your mind when you think of that concept? (3 points)

Answers

Answer:

Please provide the concept so that people may be able to answer your question.

Explanation:

What is not a recommended way of quitting smoking?


a. quitting all at once

b. switching to low-tar cigarettes

c. taking prescription medicine

d. chewing nicotine gum
(I DO NOT SMOKE AND I DONT SUGGEST SMOKING IT IS HARMFUL AND CAN CAUSE LUNG CANCER THIS IS A QUESTION FOR MY HEALTH CLASS)

Answers

Answer:

I believe the answer is c.

B switching to low-tar cigarettes

Select THREE ways that the body reacts to low blood sugar to maintain homeostasis.
The heart beat begins to increase.

The repiration rate decreases.

The pancreas begins to shut down.


The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.


The hypothalamus signals the adrenal gland.


The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine, creating a feeling of hunger so the person will eat.

Answers

The answers to your questions are:

- The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.

- The hypothalamus signals the adrenal gland.

- The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine, creating a feeling of hunger so the person will eat.

When the body has low blood sugar, you will start to feel extremely bad as your body goes into fight or flight mode. Insulin is what is used to break down the sugar in your body and when your sugar levels are dangerously low, the pancreas starts producing glucagon. This is what causes you to start feeling hungry as your body is warning you to increase your blood sugar level.

The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.

how you ensure you were following infection control guidelines when performing your cleaning duties

Answers

Answer:

Here are some steps that cleaning personnel can take:

Follow established cleaning protocols: Cleaning personnel should follow established cleaning protocols that are specific to the facility they are working in. These protocols should be based on the most current infection control guidelines and should be reviewed regularly.

Use personal protective equipment (PPE): Cleaning personnel should use appropriate PPE, such as gloves and masks, when performing cleaning duties. PPE helps to protect cleaning personnel from exposure to infectious agents and helps to prevent the spread of infections.

Use appropriate cleaning agents: Cleaning personnel should use cleaning agents that are effective against the specific pathogens they are trying to eliminate. Cleaning agents should be approved by the facility's infection control team and should be used according to the manufacturer's instructions.

Clean and disinfect high-touch surfaces: Cleaning personnel should pay particular attention to high-touch surfaces, such as door handles, light switches, and countertops. These surfaces should be cleaned and disinfected frequently to prevent the spread of infections.

Practice good hand hygiene: Cleaning personnel should practice good hand hygiene by washing their hands frequently with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. Hand sanitizer should be used if soap and water are not available.

Report any issues: Cleaning personnel should report any issues or concerns they have about infection control practices to their supervisor or infection control team. Issues should be addressed promptly to prevent the spread of infections.

Explanation:

Hand hygiene, avoiding infections, and controlling them methods. The most crucial step in preventing the spread of illnesses among patients and Nurses is good hand hygiene.

How can you maintain effective infection & control while working?

Before and after preparing food, wash your hands. Don't touch your lips, nose, or hair.  Separate between cooked and raw food storage, utensils, and preparation areas should be used.

What are the top 5 guidelines for preventing infections?

They include both common precautions (hand washing, personal protective equipment, injection security, environmental cleaning, and coughing manners) and measures based on transmission (contact, droplet, and airborne).

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Type the correct answer in the box 7+ (5-92 + 3(16 8). The value of the expression is withdrawing which asset will incur a penalty before a certain period has passed? group of answer choices checkable deposits savings deposits small-time deposits traveler's checks 2) Other risk factors beyond what is assessed in the Braden Scale may include co-morbid conditions (e.g., vascular disease, diabetes), increased length of stay, and use of vasopressors (e.g., norepinephrine). TrueFalse part 1: earth, moon, and sun relationships it takes approximately four weeks (one month) for the moon to travel around earth. below is a diagram showing the earth, sun, and moon as viewed from the north pole. the diagram is not to scale. moon sun earth 1. draw an arrow on earth to show earth's rotation. how long does this take? 2. draw an arrow on the moon showing the direction of the moon's motion around earth. how long does this take? Describe the flow of energy that you see in this feeding frenzy. Where is the energy being transferred? Where did it come from? Does the following table of values describe a linear function? If it does, what is the rate of change?x 5 6 7 8y 10 8 6 4correctly answer pls emerson museum received a cash gift of $7 million. the board of trustees decided that the gift should be used to establish a permanent endowment, the income from which would be used to provide research grants to impressionist art historians. the museum should report the gift as an increase in PLEASE HELP ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST an otr works as part of a multidisciplinary spina bifida team at a university-based orthopedic children's hospital. a 2-year-old child, who lives in a rural community 90 miles (144 km) from the clinic, has a routine appointment with the clinic team every 2 months. during one of the clinic appointments, the otr completes a developmental screening. results indicate a 2-3 month delay in upper body motor development. what action should the otr take based on the screening outcomes? why did the author keep vultures off stage at the beginning of the play? a. to scare the performers b. to make the play last longer c. to give vulture a break d. to surprise the audience a parent died on february 1, year 4, and bequeathed two different assets to their adult child. the following information relates to the fair market values of the bequeathed assets: asset 1's fair market value on date of death $80,000 asset 2's fair market value on date of death 30,000 asset 1's fair market value on date of distribution (april 24, year 4) 75,000 asset 1's fair market value on alternate valuation date (august 1, year 4) 70,000 asset 2's fair market value on alternate valuation date (august 1, year 4) 32,000 asset 2's fair market value on date of distribution (october 25, year 4) 35,000 the executor of the estate made a qualified alternate valuation date election. what is the child's basis in each asset? as the size of a sample increases, the standard deviation of the distribution of sample means increases always. (true/false). anyone there can help me? thank you so much!! an analysis and aging of the accounts receivable of hugh company at december 31 revealed the following data: ch-8-q-108 the cash realizable value of the accounts receivable at december 31, after adjustment, is: group of answer choices $694,000. $744,000. $750,000. $794,000. the process of tax preparation is not dramatically different from one firm to the next. true false please help asap!!!!!! a renowned musical artist has earned tremendous amounts of money supplying their talent globally to millions of fans. which of the following statements characterizes this market in which some workers earn enormous incomes while others (who may have similar talent) earn significantly less? check all that apply. technology enables the best producer to supply all customers at low cost. nearly all customers in the market desire the good supplied by the superstar. the best recording artists earn dramatically more than good or mediocre artists. the best recording artists have high levels of human capital. because of technology, his music is essentially a public good. Out of 491 applicants for a job, 115 have over 5 years of experience and 53 have over 5 years of experience and have a graduate degree.Step 1 of 2 : What is the probability that a randomly chosen applicant has a graduate degree, given that they have over 5 years of experience? Enter a fraction or round your answer to 4 decimal places, if necessary. Tom and John are engaged in buying and selling certain products A and B. Tom BUYS 5 of product A but SELLS twice as much of product B. John on the other hand SELLS three times what Tom BOUGHT of product A and BUYS 13 of product B. At the end of the business day, John banks Ksh 110,000/- while Tom banks Ksh 230,000.Under the assumption that the sale prices for product A and B are the same for the two men, and the costs prices for the products A and B are also the same for the two men, obtain the following:The price for product A which was determined as Ksh 42,727.27 and the price for product B as 44,363.63Question: If there was a mark up of 25% on the cost price and a discount of 15% on the sale price, how much would each of the partners have banked at the end of the business day? an index that is calculated from sample data and whose value determines whether to accept or reject a null hypothesis is a