Which fraction is between 0.8 and 0.82?

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

or 4/12 if not simplified

Answer:

y = -3x + 10

Step-by-step explanation:

We write The slope-intercept equation of a line D Like this

D : y = mx+b    (where m is the slope and p is the y-intercept)

__________________________

According to the given information:

The slope = -3

Then ,the equation of our line is : y = -3x + p

Now we need to find p:

Since The point (4, -2) lie on the line

then

-2 = -3(4) + p

then

-2 = -12 + p

then

p = 12 - 2 = 10

Conclusion:

y = -3x + 10

Answer:

[tex]\Longrightarrow: \boxed{\sf{5(5a+8)}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the distributive property.

Distributive property:

⇒ 5*5=25

⇒ 5*8=40

Rewrite the problem.

⇒ 5*5a+5*8

Solve.

Multiply.

⇒ 5*5a=25a

⇒ 5*8=40

Rewrite the expression.

⇒ = 25a+40

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any questions.

As you can see, the area of the scarf is equal to the area of the rectangle minus the area of the 2 semi-circles (which form a circle)

Now, we calculate the area of the rectangle : 28 x 15 = 420 in2

The diameter of the circle is 15in -> The radius = 15 : 2 = 7.5in.

We now find the area of the 2 semi-circles : 7.5 x 7.5 x 3.14 = 176.625 in2

So, the area of the scarf is : 420 - 176.625 = 243.375 in2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The best way to see the answer to the question is to go the midpoint of AB.You will note that the midpoint of AB looks like T is slightly to the left of the midpoint and down.

Do the same thing with q. Add p and q the way 2 vectors would be added together. So AT is 1/2(p + q)

Starting at A draw 1/2 p. Maintaining the same angle for q, draw 1/2 q at the end of 1/2 p. Hence the answer is vector(AT ) = (1/2 p + 1/2 q)

Answer:

as a non percent 3/6 or 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

A number less than 4 would be 1,2 and 3  so you have 3/6 die chance

Vs. 1,2,3,4,5,6 which are all under 47 so rolling a number like that would be 100% or 6/6

The equation that can be used to find the measure of angle GFE is given by: Option B: cos−1(11.9/14.5) = θ

Trigonometric ratios for a right angled triangle are from the perspective of a particular non-right angle.

In a right angled triangle, two such angles are there which are not right angled(not of 90 degrees).

The slant side is called hypotenuse.

From the considered angle, the side opposite to it is called perpendicular, and the remaining side will be called base.

From that angle (suppose its measure is θ),

[tex]\sin(\theta) = \dfrac{\text{Length of perpendicular}}{\text{Length of Hypotenuse}}\\\cos(\theta) = \dfrac{\text{Length of Base }}{\text{Length of Hypotenuse}}\\\\\tan(\theta) = \dfrac{\text{Length of perpendicular}}{\text{Length of base}}\\\\\cot(\theta) = \dfrac{\text{Length of base}}{\text{Length of perpendicular}}\\\\\sec(\theta) = \dfrac{\text{Length of Hypotenuse}}{\text{Length of base}}\\\\\csc(\theta) = \dfrac{\text{Length of Hypotenuse}}{\text{Length of perpendicular}}\\[/tex]

The missing information, not present in this question are:

Since for the triangle GFE, if we look from the angle ∠GFE, the sides given are hypotenuse FG and the base FE.

Thus, we can use cosine ratio, and then its inverse to find the value of angle θ.

Thus, we get:

[tex]\cos(\theta) = \dfrac{|FE|}{|FG|} = \dfrac{11.9}{14.5} \\\\\theta = \cos^{-1}\left(\dfrac{11.9}{14.5}\right)\\\\[/tex]

Thus, the equation that can be used to find the measure of angle GFE is given by: Option B: cos−1(11.9/14.5) = θ

Learn more about inverse trigonometric functions here:

https://brainly.com/question/12551115

Answer:

option B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

150 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

If they've completed 60% and have covered 90 miles

We can say

60% = 90 (miles)

We can work out 10% by dividing by 6 on both sides

10% = 15

100% is just 10 times larger

100% = 150

The trip (100% completion) is 150 miles

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x=first number; y=second number

x+y=85

y-4=2x

Solve-

y=85-x

(85-x)-4=2x

81=3x

x=27

Plug in-

(27)+y=85

y=58

Answer:

See below ~

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Equating x coordinates to find the value of x

Equating y coordinates to find the value of y

Compare coordinates

And

Answer:

Jessiah has 14 pencils

Miles has 28 pencils

Grace has 8 pencils

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm going to assume that you mean Jessaih instead of Jessia because otherwise it would be impossible to solve

Let the # of Jessaih's pencils equal j, # of Grace's pencils equal g, # of Miles' pencils equal m,

j=g+6

m=2j

So m=2(g+6) or 2g+12

Therefore, g+g+6+2g+12, or 4g+18=50, so g = 8

j=8+6, which is 14

m = 2(14), which is 28

See analyris

[tex]Hlug\ in\ the\ value\ of \left.\ t.\right\}[/tex]

[tex]The\ infital\ ampunt\ in\ the\ sample:[/tex]

[tex]t=0_{-1}\ \ \ \ \ f(t)=39\omega\bullet(\frac{1}{2})^\frac{0}{14}[/tex]

                        [tex]=3900\ g.[/tex]

[tex]Ater\ bo\ busis.[/tex]

[tex]t=6,\ \ \ \ \ A(t)=2900\times(\frac{1}{2})^\frac{60}{14}[/tex]

                       [tex]=3900\times(\frac{1}{2})^\frac{30}{7}[/tex]

                       [tex]\approx 209.[/tex]

I hope this helps you

:)

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

half of 10 is 50 on tenth of 50 is 5

solution 1

[tex]\dashrightarrow \sf 6\dfrac{2}{6} *1\dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\dashrightarrow \sf \dfrac{38}{6} *\dfrac{3}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\dashrightarrow \sf \dfrac{114}{12}[/tex]

[tex]\dashrightarrow \sf 9\dfrac{6}{12}[/tex]

solution 2

[tex]\dashrightarrow \sf 5\dfrac{2}{3} *\dfrac{3}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\dashrightarrow \sf \dfrac{17}{3} *\dfrac{3}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\dashrightarrow \sf 4\dfrac{3}{12}[/tex]

Answer:

Question 3) -- C -- 9  6/12

Question 4) -- C -- 4  3/12

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

The sampling method that ensures the  accuracy and generalizability of findings is a random sampling.

The term random samping is a sampling technique in which the participants are selected in a random manner from the population. The sample is selected in such a way that it is representative of the entire population.

The sampling method that ensures the  accuracy and generalizability of findings is a random sampling.

Learn more about random sampling: https://brainly.com/question/12719656

#SPJ1

Answer:

Solution

A=2(wl+hl+hw)=2·(4.9×10-3·5.2×10-3+9.1×10-3·5.2×10-3+9.1×10-3·4.9×10-3)≈2.3478×10-4m²

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-135

Step-by-step explanation:

-15*9=-135

Answer:

24 pages per hour :)

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to divide to solve :)

144/6 = 24

Have an amazing day!!

Please rate and mark brainliest!!

B) <2≅<6

When a transversal crosses over 2 parallel lines there are certain statements that can be made, such as the fact that corresponding angles are congruent.

Defining a Corresponding Angle

Corresponding angles are angles that have the same relative position with different vertices. For example, if 2 angles are both in the bottom left of an intersection of 2 lines, they are corresponding. Since both angle 2 and 6 are in the top right, they are corresponding.

Proving the Lines are Parallel

Since corresponding angles are congruent when a transversal crosses parallel lines, any statement that proves corresponding angles are congruent would prove the lines are parallel. This means that <2≅<6 must prove that l║m.

Process of Elimination

Additionally, we can prove that B is correct by proving that the other answers are incorrect.

A) Angle 2 and 3 are vertical angles. This has nothing to do with parallel lines and cannot be used to prove that l║m.

C) Angle 7 and 8 are a linear pair, and, once again, this has nothing to do with whether or not l and m are parallel.

D) If l and m were parallel, then angles 3 and 5 would sum to 180 degrees. this is because if l║m, then <3 and <5 would be same side interior angles. Same side interior angles always sum to 180. So, this statement would actually disprove l║m.

Answer:

the second option

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I thank it is D

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to calculate efficiency

Option A

528 ÷ 24 = 22 mi/gal

Option B

690 ÷ 30 = 23 mi/gal

Option C

840 ÷ 42 = 20 mi/gal

Option B, gives the best fuel efficiency because the car can travel further using 1 gallons of fuel than others.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3(2x-5) +2x+3=1       Distribute the 3

6x-15+2x+3=1     Combine like terms

8x-12=1   Add 12 to 1

8x=-12  Divide by 8

x=13/8

Answer:

x = [tex]\frac{13}{8}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

3(2x - 5) + 2x + 3 = 1 ← distribute parenthesis and simplify left side

6x - 15 + 2x + 3 = 1

8x - 12 = 1 ( add 12 to both sides )

8x = 13 ( divide both sides by 8 )

x = [tex]\frac{13}{8}[/tex]

Answer:

1) d

2) a

3) c

4) b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 2 3

Step-by-step explanation: 1 times 18, 2 times 9, 3 times 6