Inflicting Agony to Save a Life
Sally Morganthau was an experienced nurse specializing in the care and treatment of
patients suffering from body burns. She was newly assigned as the primary nurse for
James Tobias, a 32-year-old man who had been on the burn unit of Parsons County
Hospital for 4 weeks. He had suffered 60% body burns (40% first and second degree
and 20% third degree) as a result of being trapped in a house fire.
It was clear to the staff that Mr. Tobias would survive his injuries but that his treatment
process would be a long and painful one. He would be hospitalized for months and
would face a number of operations. He would probably lose his eyesight and have
limited mobility due to extensive muscle damage in the lower extremities. Of greater
concern to the staff was Mr. Tobias’s mental distress associated with his tankings and
dressing changes. He often screamed with agony as the staff worked on his dressings.
He demanded that they stop, but the team, used to the screams of its patients,
continued their efforts day after day. Because of the excellent performance of this
particular burn team, patients for whom sur- vival would have been unprecedented only
a few years ago now often pulled through.
One day after his daily tanking and dressing changes had been completed and he had
been returned to his room, Mr. Tobias asked for Ms. Morganthau. He insisted that no
fur- ther treatment be performed. He made it clear that he understood that this would
mean his possibilities of surviving his injuries would decrease and that if he did survive,
his contractures would be worse and his problems even more severe. Yet he insisted
that the agony was too much for him, and he did not want any further treatment.
Ms. Morganthau spoke with her nursing colleagues and discovered that Mr. Tobias had
been demanding that they stop the treatments for over a week. A psychiatric consult
had confirmed that Mr. Tobias was mentally competent and understood the significance
of his decision. Dr. Albertson, the attending resident, was well aware of Mr. Tobias’s
feelings. He had seen patients like Mr. Tobias before. Some who had considered
refusing further treatment thanked Dr. Albertson and the staff years later for going on.
Dr. Albertson knew that Mr. Tobias’s life was on the line. He was not going to lose a
patient he knew he could save. What should Ms. Morganthau do?
To proceed with the case analysis, your group must:
1. Read and examine the case study thoroughly.
2. Focus on two to three problems.
3. Uncover possible solutions.
4. Select the best solution.
Please help me thank you i need right now the answer the best solution.

The respiratory therapist, also known as a respiratory care practitioner, is a healthcare professional who specializes in the treatment, management, and care of individuals with cardiopulmonary disorders.

As part of their job duties, respiratory therapists are responsible for performing a variety of respiratory calculations that help diagnose, treat, and monitor the progress of their patients. A typical respiratory calculation that a respiratory therapist may encounter while working includes calculating a patient's minute ventilation, tidal volume, respiratory rate, and alveolar ventilation. These calculations are used to monitor the patient's respiratory status and assess their response to treatment.A long answer is as follows:Minute ventilation (MV) is the amount of air that a patient breathes in and out during one minute. To calculate the MV, the respiratory therapist multiplies the respiratory rate (RR) by the tidal volume (TV).

The formula for MV is: MV = RR x TV. The normal MV range is 5-10 L/min.Tidal volume (TV) is the amount of air that a patient inhales and exhales during one breath. To calculate the TV, the respiratory therapist measures the volume of air a patient exhales during one breath. The normal TV range is 5-10 mL/kg of ideal body weight.Respiratory rate (RR) is the number of breaths a patient takes per minute. To measure the RR, the respiratory therapist counts the number of breaths a patient takes in one minute. The normal RR range is 12-20 breaths per minute.Alveolar ventilation (VA) is the amount of air that reaches the alveoli (the air sacs in the lungs) per minute. To calculate the VA, the respiratory therapist subtracts the dead space ventilation (VD) from the minute ventilation (MV). The formula for VA is: VA = (TV - VD) x RR. The normal VA range is 4-8 L/min.

To know more about healthcare visit :

https://brainly.com/question/28136962

#SPJ11

Abnormal blood glucose level indicates hyperglycemia (high blood glucose) or hypoglycemia (low blood glucose). In both cases, the nurse should take immediate action to avoid further complications.

Nursing actions for abnormal blood glucose levels depend on the patient's condition and the severity of the abnormality. If the blood glucose level is too high, the nurse can administer insulin or other medications, monitor the patient's fluid intake, and encourage physical activity to help lower the blood glucose level. On the other hand, if the blood glucose level is too low, the nurse can give the patient sugar or other carbohydrates to raise their blood glucose levels. The nurse must closely monitor the patient's vital signs, such as pulse and blood pressure, and assess their level of consciousness and behavior.

The nurse should also report any abnormalities or changes in the patient's condition to the doctor. In case the patient is unconscious, the nurse should administer intravenous dextrose solution as soon as possible. The nurse should provide the patient and their family with education regarding diabetes management, healthy eating, and insulin administration if they have diabetes. In conclusion, the nursing actions for abnormal blood glucose levels include the administration of medications, monitoring of vital signs, providing carbohydrate-rich food, and educating the patient.

To learn more about hyperglycemia visit;

https://brainly.com/question/30391644

#SPJ11

The pH range in the body considered to be in a state of respiratory alkalosis is (a) above 7.45.

The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with values below 7 being acidic, 7 being neutral, and values above 7 being alkaline or basic.

Respiratory alkalosis is a medical condition characterized by a higher-than-normal pH level in the body due to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide (CO2) through the respiratory system. It is primarily caused by hyperventilation, which leads to a decrease in the concentration of CO2 in the bloodstream.

When we breathe, we inhale oxygen and exhale CO2. Normally, the body maintains a delicate balance between oxygen and CO2 levels. However, in cases of hyperventilation, breathing becomes rapid and shallow, leading to increased elimination of CO2 from the body.

The excessive elimination of CO2 causes a decrease in the concentration of carbonic acid (H2CO3) in the blood. Carbonic acid is formed when CO2 combines with water (H2O), and it plays a crucial role in maintaining the pH balance in the body. With lower levels of carbonic acid, the pH of the blood rises, making it more alkaline.

Learn more about respiratory alkalosis: brainly.com/question/10889363

#SPJ11

The first shunt is the Ductus arteriosus, a vessel between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta. The second shunt is the Foramen ovale, a hole in the interatrial septum.

In the fetal heart, there are two shunts that connect the right heart to the left heart. The first shunt is known as the ductus arteriosus, which is a small vessel located between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta. It allows blood to bypass the non-functioning fetal lungs. The second shunt is the foramen ovale, which is a hole located in the interatrial septum, allowing blood to pass directly from the right atrium to the left atrium. This shunt helps bypass the fetal lungs as well. After birth, these shunts typically close and transform into non-functional structures, with the ductus arteriosus becoming the ligamentum arteriosum and the foramen ovale closing to become the fossa ovalis.

To know more about pulmonary,

https://brainly.com/question/32216917#

#SPJ11

Cataract, a common age-related eye condition, affects the clarity of vision and can significantly impact an individual's quality of life. Along with medical interventions, proper nutrition plays a vital role in supporting eye health and potentially slowing the progression of cataracts.

1. Nutritional Therapeutic Recommendation for Cataract Patient:

For cataract patients, a nutritional therapeutic approach can help support eye health and potentially slow the progression of cataracts. Recommendations include consuming a diet rich in antioxidants such as vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and lutein. Foods like citrus fruits, berries, leafy greens, carrots, and nuts are beneficial. Omega-3 fatty acids found in fish, flaxseeds, and walnuts may also be beneficial. Additionally, limiting the intake of processed foods, sugary beverages, and saturated fats is advisable.

2. Nutritional Health Teaching in Cataract Patient:

When providing nutritional health teaching to cataract patients, it is important to emphasize the importance of a well-balanced diet consisting of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats. Educate patients about specific nutrients beneficial for eye health, such as antioxidants and omega-3 fatty acids. Encourage them to make informed food choices and promote healthy eating habits that support overall eye health and well-being.

3. Sample Meal Plan for Cataract Patient:

A sample meal plan for a cataract patient may include:

This meal plan incorporates nutrient-dense foods rich in antioxidants, omega-3 fatty acids, and other essential nutrients to support eye health. It is essential to individualize the meal plan based on the patient's specific dietary needs and preferences.

Learn more about cataract: https://brainly.com/question/26139170

#SPJ11

Teaching clients is an important aspect of a health care team approach. Consistency in the delivery of educational content can be guaranteed by adopting the following steps:

Establishing a comprehensive plan: Health care providers should create a plan that includes information such as goals and objectives, learning strategies, methods of assessment, timelines, and resources, among other things. Healthcare providers should also determine who will be responsible for delivering educational content and to whom it will be delivered. Establishing an evidence-based practice: Healthcare providers should use current evidence-based guidelines to create educational content. They should also use research to inform educational strategies, which can help ensure that educational content is consistent.

Developing clear educational materials: Educational materials should be clear, concise, and easy to understand. Educational materials should be visually appealing, with the information presented in a logical order. Educational materials should also be available in multiple formats to accommodate different learning styles. Conducting regular staff training: Healthcare providers should conduct regular training for staff who will be delivering educational content. This training should include information on the educational plan, evidence-based practices, and strategies for delivering educational content effectively. This will help ensure that all staff members are on the same page when it comes to delivering educational content.

Problems that may occur with inconsistencies in educational content delivery include confusion, miscommunication, and poor outcomes. If educational content is not delivered consistently, clients may become confused about their care and may not follow through with treatment recommendations. This can lead to poor health outcomes and may even result in the need for hospitalization.

Learn more about health care: https://brainly.com/question/27741709

#SPJ11

If a cataract is present, surgery may be necessary to remove it. If dry eye syndrome is present, medications or lifestyle changes may be recommended to help alleviate the symptoms.

As the ophthalmologist, you would be responsible for assessing Lenard's vision and providing recommendations for treatment. After performing a dilated eye exam, you would have found the following: Lenard is a 69-year-old white man who came to the ophthalmologist because he has been having blurry vision in his left eye and feels "like there is a film over it." He saw his primary care doctor, who prescribed tobramycin eye drops, but it has not improved.

Lenard takes medication for cholesterol and hypertension, which suggests that he may be at risk for other conditions that can affect his vision. The symptoms that Lenard is experiencing could be caused by several different conditions. For example, he could have a cataract, which is a clouding of the eye's lens that can cause blurred or distorted vision. Alternatively, Lenard may have dry eye syndrome, which occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears to keep them moist. In either case, further testing and evaluation would be necessary to determine the exact cause of Lenard's symptoms.

To know more about necessary visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31550321

#SPJ11

Uncontrolled cell growth and division occur when inhibitory proteins are altered. The cell cycle is tightly regulated, which is crucial for normal cell growth and development. The cell cycle is regulated by a group of proteins that act in a coordinated manner to drive the cell through each stage of the cycle.

If the regulation of these proteins is altered, it can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and division.

The cell cycle is composed of four phases: G1, S, G2, and M. During G1, the cell prepares for DNA replication, which occurs during the S phase. The G2 phase is a period of growth and preparation for cell division, and the M phase is when the cell divides into two daughter cells.

Inhibitory proteins play a crucial role in regulating the cell cycle. They act to slow down or halt the cell cycle in response to various signals, including DNA damage, lack of nutrients, or other types of stress. Two important families of inhibitory proteins are the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors (CDKIs) and the retinoblastoma (pRb) family of proteins.

CDKIs inhibit the activity of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs), which are important drivers of the cell cycle. The pRb family of proteins also plays a crucial role in regulating the cell cycle by binding to and inhibiting the activity of transcription factors that are required for the expression of genes involved in cell growth and division.

When inhibitory proteins are altered, they can no longer effectively slow down or halt the cell cycle in response to signals. This can result in uncontrolled cell growth and division, which can lead to the development of cancer. Therefore, the alteration of inhibitory proteins is a crucial factor in the development of cancer.

In conclusion, uncontrolled cell growth and division occur when inhibitory proteins are altered. These proteins play a critical role in regulating the cell cycle, and their alteration can lead to the development of cancer.

To know more about inhibitory visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30052085

#SPJ11

The subjective statement in the given options is: "The patient has a cigarette burn to the inside of the thigh."

A subjective statement is one that includes personal opinions, interpretations, or value judgments rather than objective facts. In this case, all the other statements provide objective descriptions of the patient's condition or the vehicles involved in an incident.

However, the statement "The patient has a cigarette burn to the inside of the thigh" is subjective because it involves an interpretation of the nature of the injury. Whether the burn is actually caused by a cigarette or not is a subjective conclusion that requires further investigation or confirmation.

To know more about subjective statement here https://brainly.com/question/3174014

#SPJ4

Peristalsis is the rhythmic timing of muscle contractions that forces food backward and forward rather than forward only.

Peristalsis involves the sequential contraction and relaxation of muscles in the digestive organs, such as the esophagus, stomach, and intestines. It creates a wave-like motion that pushes food forward, but also causes intermittent contractions that propel the food backward and mix it with digestive juices. This back-and-forth movement aids in the mechanical breakdown of food, facilitates thorough mixing with digestive enzymes, and ensures proper absorption of nutrients.

In contrast, segmentation refers to localized contractions that mix and churn the food within a specific section of the digestive tract, without significant forward movement.

Learn more about Peristalsis:

https://brainly.com/question/15265456

#SPJ11

4. The feature of massive bullae on the apices of both lung lobes is consistent with emphysema. Emphysema is a condition where the air sacs in the lungs become damaged, leading to the formation of bullae (large air spaces) and the collapse of smaller airways.

This condition is most commonly caused by chronic smoking. Bronchial asthma and chronic bronchitis are also respiratory conditions caused by smoking, but they do not produce bullae on the lung lobes, making them unlikely choices for this question. Pulmonary hypertension, on the other hand, is a condition where there is high blood pressure in the arteries that supply the lungs. This condition is not associated with the formation of bullae on the lung lobes.
5. The absence of heart sounds on the left precordium and the presence of a palpable liver on the left side of the abdomen suggest that the patient in this question has dextrocardia. Dextrocardia is a rare condition where the heart is located on the right side of the chest instead of the left. This condition can be associated with recurrent lower respiratory tract infections and is often seen in conjunction with situs inversus (where the organs of the body are reversed). The lung disease most likely to develop in this patient is bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways of the lungs become abnormally widened and often occur as a result of recurrent infections.
6. The patient in this question is presenting with symptoms of cor pulmonale, which is a complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a group of respiratory conditions that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema, which are often caused by chronic smoking. Cor pulmonale is a condition where there is enlargement and eventual failure of the right side of the heart due to lung disease. This condition can cause the symptoms described in the question, including elevated jugular venous pressure, peripheral edema, and cyanosis. Bronchogenic carcinoma is a type of lung cancer that is not associated with these symptoms. Lung abscess and bronchiectasis are respiratory conditions that can cause chronic productive cough but are not associated with the other symptoms described in the question.

To know more about massive bullae visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13430747

#SPJ11

Patient confidentiality is critical in health care practice, where any breach can lead to severe consequences. One instance in which  witnessed a patient's confidentiality was compromised was during a ward round at a community hospital.

During the ward round, when  overheard a conversation between two clinicians discussing a patient's medical record, which we believe should have been confidential. The discussion comprised some sensitive and personal information that the patient would have wanted to keep private.

While the clinicians did not explicitly mention the patient's name,  recognized the patient from the details they discussed.

Given that the patient's information was compromised, we had to inform the nurse in charge of the ward round about the situation. We had a meeting with the patient, and we apologized for the mishap and reassured the patient that all measures would be taken to prevent such situations from recurring in the future.

The literature emphasizes that patient confidentiality is a fundamental element of medical ethics, where patients trust clinicians with their information, and it is the clinician's responsibility to safeguard that information.

In conclusion, healthcare providers must always protect the patient's confidentiality and adhere to the health information privacy laws. Additionally, when a breach happens, healthcare providers must handle the situation professionally and be transparent with the patient, as trust is crucial in healthcare practice.

learn more about health care practice:

https://brainly.com/question/19305870

#SPJ11

Three nursing diagnoses that can be identified for this patient are: 1) Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to acute exacerbation of COPD, 2) Anxiety related to difficulty breathing and previous hospitalization, and 3) Impaired Sleep Pattern related to dyspnea and use of BiPAP support. Each nursing diagnosis can be addressed with appropriate outcomes and interventions to provide comprehensive care to the patient.

Ineffective Breathing Pattern is a nursing diagnosis that addresses the patient's altered breathing mechanics and inadequate ventilation. Desired outcomes may include the patient demonstrating improved breathing pattern, maintaining oxygen saturation within a specified range, and exhibiting improved arterial blood gas (ABG) values.

Interventions may involve assessing respiratory status, administering prescribed bronchodilators or oxygen therapy, providing breathing exercises and relaxation techniques, and monitoring ABG results.

Anxiety is another nursing diagnosis considering the patient's distress due to difficulty breathing and previous hospitalization experiences. Desired outcomes may include the patient expressing reduced anxiety levels, demonstrating effective coping strategies, and participating in relaxation techniques.

Interventions may involve providing a calm and supportive environment, educating the patient about breathing exercises and relaxation techniques, offering emotional support and reassurance, and involving the patient in decision-making regarding their care.

Impaired Sleep Pattern is a nursing diagnosis that addresses the patient's disrupted sleep due to dyspnea and the use of BiPAP support. Desired outcomes may include the patient experiencing improved sleep quality, demonstrating a regular sleep pattern, and reporting feeling rested upon waking.

Interventions may involve assessing the patient's sleep pattern and quality, implementing measures to promote a conducive sleep environment, coordinating with the healthcare team to provide appropriate management of dyspnea, and evaluating the effectiveness of BiPAP support during sleep.

Visit here to learn more about  dyspnea:

brainly.com/question/29357189

#SPJ11

a) Two tests that may be performed by Henry's eye doctor are: 1. Visual acuity test, 2. Visual field test. b) Based on Henry's signs and symptoms, he is most likely experiencing presbyopia. c) Henry's central visual loss is more likely to be due to macular degeneration rather than glaucoma.

a) Two tests that may be performed by Henry's eye doctor are:

1. Visual acuity test: This test measures Henry's ability to see clearly at various distances. He will be asked to read letters from a standardized eye chart to assess his visual acuity. This test helps determine the extent of his vision loss and whether it is due to refractive errors or other underlying conditions.

2. Visual field test: This test evaluates Henry's peripheral vision. It involves staring straight ahead and indicating when he sees objects or lights in his side vision. By mapping his field of vision, the ophthalmologist can detect any abnormalities or loss of peripheral vision, which can be an indicator of certain eye conditions.

b) Based on Henry's signs and symptoms, he is most likely experiencing presbyopia. Presbyopia is an age-related condition that affects near vision and typically starts to develop around middle age. It causes difficulty in focusing on close objects, such as reading materials, while distant vision remains relatively unaffected. Henry's complaint of not being able to read clearly or see things close up aligns with the typical symptoms of presbyopia.

Hypermetropia (farsightedness) is characterized by difficulty seeing objects up close, but it also affects distant vision. Myopia (nearsightedness), on the other hand, causes difficulty seeing distant objects clearly, but typically does not affect near vision. Since Henry's complaint is primarily related to near vision and his distant vision is not mentioned as being impaired, presbyopia is the most likely diagnosis.

c) Henry's central visual loss is more likely to be due to macular degeneration rather than glaucoma. Macular degeneration is a progressive eye condition that affects the macula, a small area in the center of the retina responsible for central vision. It can cause a gradual loss of central vision while preserving peripheral vision, which aligns with Henry's complaint of not being able to see anything straight in front of him (central vision) but still having some vision in his peripheral field.

On the other hand, glaucoma is a condition that primarily affects peripheral vision. It is characterized by damage to the optic nerve, often caused by increased pressure within the eye. While glaucoma can eventually lead to loss of central vision in advanced stages, it typically starts with peripheral vision loss. Since Henry reports being able to see things out of the corners of his eyes or to his sides (peripheral vision), it is less likely that glaucoma is the cause of his central visual loss.

Learn more about glaucoma here: brainly.com/question/30092188

#SPJ11

To determine the ordering dose of IM Penicillin G, we need to convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

d. 680,000 units.

1 pound is approximately 0.4536 kilograms.

So, for a 150-pound patient:

150 lbs. * 0.4536 kg/lb. = 68.04 kg (rounded to two decimal places)

Now, we can calculate the ordering dose:

Ordering dose = 10,000 units/kg * 68.04 kg = 680,400 units

Rounding to the nearest thousandth place, the ordering dose of IM Penicillin G is approximately 680,000 units.

Learn more about Pediatrician, here:

https://brainly.com/question/10899736

#SPJ11

Prior to the patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS, Lou Gehrig's disease) who is on a ventilator arriving on the unit, the most appropriate thing to do is place a pulse oximeter in the room for continuous oxygen saturation monitoring.

It is the best option, as patients with ALS who are on ventilators are at risk for respiratory distress as their respiratory muscles are progressively weakened by the disease. This could lead to respiratory failure. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method for monitoring the oxygen saturation level in the blood.

By monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation, healthcare professionals can assess if they are receiving enough oxygen through their breathing tube and if they need extra oxygen. Answer: A. Place a pulse oximeter in the room for continuous oxygen saturation monitoring.

To know more about amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28283058

#SPJ11

The ion channels that are activated under the sensation of pressure in neurons are channels with mechanical gates. These channels with mechanical gates allow ions to flow across the neuronal membrane when there is an application of mechanical force.

There are four main types of ion channels in neurons: Voltage-gated ion channels Ligand-gated ion channels, Mechanosensitive ion channels, Gap junction channels

These channels play a key role in neuron signaling and communication. While voltage-gated channels are activated by changes in the electric potential across the membrane, ligand-gated channels are activated by neurotransmitters or other ligands.

The mechano-sensitive ion channels are opened in response to mechanical forces, like pressure or stretch, while gap junction channels allow for the direct exchange of ions and small molecules between adjacent cells. The leakage channels, on the other hand, allow for the passive movement of ions across the membrane. The answer is option b. Channels with mechanical gate.

To learn more about mechanical visit;

https://brainly.com/question/20434227

#SPJ11

Urinary tract infections: Struvite stones

Increase in the pH of the urine: Calcium oxalate stones

Cystine stones: Increased excretion of calcium, oxalic acid, and uric acid

Acidic urine pH and low urine output: Uric acid stones

Urinary tract infections (UTIs) can lead to the formation of struvite stones. Struvite stones are composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate and are commonly associated with bacterial infections in the urinary tract.

Bacteria produce urease, an enzyme that increases the pH of urine and promotes the formation of struvite stones.

An increase in the pH of the urine can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones. When the urine becomes more alkaline, it creates an environment conducive to the precipitation of calcium and oxalate crystals, which can then combine to form calcium oxalate stones.

Cystine stones are caused by increased excretion of calcium, oxalic acid, and uric acid. Cystinuria is a genetic disorder characterized by impaired reabsorption of cystine, resulting in high levels of cystine in the urine.

The excessive excretion of cystine promotes the formation of cystine stones.

Uric acid stones are associated with acidic urine pH and low urine output. When the urine is acidic and concentrated, it favors the formation of uric acid stones.

Factors such as dehydration, a high-purine diet, certain medications, and underlying medical conditions can contribute to the development of uric acid stones.

In summary, urinary tract infections lead to the formation of struvite stones, an increase in urine pH contributes to calcium oxalate stones, increased excretion of calcium, oxalic acid, and uric acid causes cystine stones, and acidic urine pH with low urine output is associated with uric acid stones.

Know more about the urinary tract infections click here:

https://brainly.com/question/10816484

#SPJ11

The incidence rate is defined as new cases occurring within a short time period divided by the total population at risk at the beginning of that time period, then multiplied by 100.

The incidence rate is determined by dividing the total number of new cases over a given time period by either the average population (typically mid-period) or the total number of person-years the population was exposed to the risk.

A measure of incidence that directly includes time in the denominator is called an incidence rate, sometimes known as a person-time rate. A long-term cohort follow-up study, in which participants are monitored over time and the occurrence of new instances of disease is recorded, is typically used to establish a person-time rate.

To know about incidence rate

https://brainly.com/question/31493651

#SPJ4

The nurse should administer the medication as soon as possible since it is a STAT order. She should also assess the patient's heart rate and blood pressure, as Atropine can cause an increase in both of these vital signs.

If the patient has a history of tachycardia or hypertension, the nurse should notify the physician before administering the medication. The nurse should also monitor the patient for side effects, such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. The patient's pupils should also be assessed after the administration of Atropine, since it causes dilation of the pupils.

In summary, the nurse should administer Atropine 0.4mg IM as a STAT order, assess the patient's vital signs, notify the physician if necessary, monitor the patient for side effects, and assess the patient's pupils.

To learn more about Atropine visit;

https://brainly.com/question/28977862

#SPJ11

Disease Cards for Hematologic Disorders:  If platelet counts fall below 10,000/microliter, spontaneous bleeding may occur. Petechiae, ecchymoses, and purpura may develop. Gingival bleeding, epistaxis, and menorrhagia are common.

Pernicious Anemia:

ETIOLOGY/ RISK FACTORS:
Pernicious anemia is caused by an autoimmune reaction that causes damage to the stomach cells that create intrinsic factor. As a result, the body is unable to absorb vitamin B12 from food and drink. The immune system produces antibodies that attack and damage the stomach lining, which contains intrinsic factor.

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY:
The absorption of vitamin B12 is hindered by a lack of intrinsic factor. The resulting vitamin B12 deficiency interferes with erythropoiesis and the development of red blood cells. Red blood cells in the bone marrow become enlarged and abnormal.

SIGNS & SYMPTOMS:
Fatigue, weakness, pale skin, shortness of breath, dizziness, and a rapid heartbeat are all symptoms of pernicious anemia. Numbness or tingling in the hands and feet, difficulty walking, depression, memory loss, and behavioral changes may also occur.

Thrombocytopenia:

ETIOLOGY/ RISK FACTORS:
Thrombocytopenia can be caused by a variety of factors, including decreased platelet production, increased platelet destruction, or sequestration of platelets. Platelet disorders such as leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome can cause a decreased production of platelets, while autoimmune diseases, viral infections, and drug reactions can cause platelets to be destroyed. Platelets can also become trapped in an enlarged spleen, leading to a low platelet count.

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY:
Thrombocytopenia is defined as a low platelet count. The most common cause is a decreased production of platelets by the bone marrow. The spleen, which plays a role in platelet destruction, is responsible for the destruction of platelets.

SIGNS & SYMPTOMS:
Thrombocytopenia is usually asymptomatic.

To know more about Pernicious anemia visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30752862

#SPJ11

a. The patient will receive 51.541 mg of aminophylline per hour ; b. The nurse should infuse the medication at a rate of 32 mL/hour.

a. The given parameters are: Weight of the patient = 162 lbs, Aminophylline (Theophylline) = 0.7 mg/kg/hr,

The weight of the patient in kilograms = 162/2.2 kg

= 73.63 kg

Therefore, the patient needs = 73.63 kg x 0.7 mg/kg/hr

= 51.541 mg/hr

b. The given parameters are: Volume = 500 mL

Concentration of aminophylline (Theophylline) in the bag = 800 mg

The dose required by the patient = 51.541 mg/hr

Therefore, the rate of infusion = (51.541 mg/hr / 800 mg) x 500 mL

= 32.2125 mL/hour

≈ 32 mL/hour

Answer: a. The patient will receive 51.541 mg of aminophylline per hour.

b. The nurse should infuse the medication at a rate of 32 mL/hour.

To know more about aminophylline, refer

https://brainly.com/question/27987953

#SPJ11

There are two types of parallel fiber arrangement such as strap muscles and fusiform muscle. Whereas, three types of pennate fiber arrangement exist including unipennate muscles, bipennate muscles and multipennate muscles. So far as, the order for the largest to smallest physiological cross-sectional area would be as Multipennate > Bipennate > Unipennate > Parallel.

Strap muscles: Muscles that have long, parallel fibers running the length of the muscle. Example: Sartorius muscle in the thigh.

Fusiform muscles: Muscles that have fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the muscle, tapering at both ends. Example: Biceps brachii muscle in the arm.

Types of pennate fiber arrangement:

Unipennate muscles: Muscles where the muscle fibers are arranged diagonally on only one side of the tendon. Example: Extensor digitorum longus muscle in the leg.

Bipennate muscles: Muscles where the muscle fibers are arranged diagonally on both sides of the tendon. Example: Rectus femoris muscle in the thigh.

Multipennate muscles: Muscles where the muscle fibers are arranged diagonally in multiple directions around multiple tendons. Example: Deltoid muscle in the shoulder.

Comparing parallel and pennate muscles based on physiological cross-sectional area:

Higher velocity of movement.

Producing powerful movements and generating force.

Greater range of motion.

A person with more type 1 fibers (slow-twitch fibers) would have an advantage in endurance activities that require sustained contractions over a long duration.

Examples include long-distance running, cycling, or marathon events. Type 1 fibers are more resistant to fatigue and are efficient in aerobic metabolism.

The muscle of the hip that works to stabilize the pelvis when standing on one leg is the Gluteus Medius muscle.

It is responsible for abduction and medial rotation of the hip and plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and balance during single-leg stance.

Read more about Pennate fiber.

https://brainly.com/question/18557913

#SPJ11

Evidence-based practice (EBP) involves the incorporation of current research-based evidence into clinical decision making. Evidence-based practice in nursing refers to the practice of nursing that is supported by clinical research and knowledge-based on the best evidence available.

Nurses at all levels of the organization must contribute to the practice's improvement through the incorporation of EBP, which leads to better patient outcomes.

The following are some of the activities that a nurse manager can identify for evidence-based practice staff nurses are:

1. Conducting routine staff meetings that include information regarding new evidence-based practices that have been implemented in other care settings, and updating staff members on any changes to current protocols or policies.

2. Encouraging staff nurses to participate in professional development opportunities such as conferences, seminars, and continuing education courses.

3. Providing access to relevant research studies and articles through the organization's library or online database.

4. Promoting evidence-based practice by encouraging staff to participate in quality improvement initiatives and research projects that aim to evaluate and improve care.

5. Using feedback from patient satisfaction surveys, staff surveys, and other sources to identify areas of improvement and opportunities to implement new evidence-based practices.

6. Developing policies and procedures based on the best available evidence, with input from staff members who work directly with patients.

7. Encouraging staff to conduct their research studies or quality improvement projects to improve patient care and outcomes.

To learn more about clinical visit;

https://brainly.com/question/32273498

#SPJ11

Non-biologic DMARDs are recommended as a first-line treatment for RA

The main difference between non-biologic and biologic DMARDS is that non-biologic DMARDS tend to suppress general cytokine activation and immune cell chemotaxis, while biologic DMARDS target specific cytokines or cells of the immune system to reduce inflammation in the joints.

Methotrexate or Sulfasalazine should be tried as non-biologic DMARDs for the treatment of RA before trying a biologic DMARD like Rituximab because non-biologic DMARDs have so few side effects and are effective and much safer than biologics.

Additionally, we must consider not only the benefit to the patient's health but also the cost of the medication and patient adherence, as non-biologic DMARDs are far more affordable.

Because non-biologic DMARDS have so few side effects they are not only effective but much safer than biologics.

Biologic DMARDS target specific cytokines or cells of the immune system to reduce inflammation in the joints. However, non-biologic DMARDS tend to suppress general cytokine activation and immune cell chemotaxis. Methotrexate and Sulfasalazine are examples of non-biologic DMARDs.

The main advantage of non-biologic DMARDs over biologic DMARDs is that they have few side effects, are effective and much safer.

Therefore, non-biologic DMARDs are recommended as a first-line treatment for RA.

Learn more about cytokines from the given link;

https://brainly.in/question/54096975

#SPJ11

The nurse should consider taking the following action: administer oxycodone 5mg orally, The correct option is A.

The client's pain level is still at 6 out of 10 after receiving ketorolac, which indicates that the current medication may not be providing adequate pain relief. Administering a stronger analgesic like oxycodone can help better manage the client's pain.

However, it's important for the nurse to follow the facility's protocols and consult the healthcare provider for specific medication orders and dosage instructions. Oxycodone is a potent opioid analgesic that is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain. It belongs to the class of medications known as opioid agonists, which work by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system to reduce pain perception, The correct option is A.

To learn more about Oxycodone follow the link:

https://brainly.com/question/22435030

#SPJ4

Ellen is a 25-year-old woman, 5'6" tall, weighing 170 pounds and having a body fat percentage of 35%. She has recently gained 20 pounds and wants to lose weight. Based on the given information, it is not possible to make an accurate recommendation about whether Ellen should or should not lose weight.

It is necessary to consider several factors before recommending weight loss to an individual. Some of these factors include the person's body composition, overall health, and medical history. In Ellen's case, her body composition suggests that she has a high percentage of body fat, which can be an indication of poor health. However, her health assessments are good, which indicates that she does not have any underlying health conditions that require immediate intervention. Therefore, it is difficult to determine whether Ellen should lose weight or not without a proper medical evaluation.

Ellen should consult with her doctor or a registered dietitian to determine the most appropriate course of action based on her individual needs and medical history. In general, weight loss is recommended for individuals who are overweight or obese and have a high percentage of body fat, as this can lead to an increased risk of various health conditions, such as heart disease, diabetes, and certain types of cancer. However, it is important to note that weight loss should always be approached in a healthy and sustainable way, as crash diets or other extreme methods can be harmful to a person's health.

To learn more about weighing visit;

https://brainly.com/question/14577832

#SPJ11

A patient's cultural beliefs and ethnicity can affect their nursing care plan in many ways. For example, their beliefs about health and illness, their communication style, and their preferred treatment options may all be influenced by their culture. It is important for nurses to be aware of these cultural factors so that they can provide care that is respectful and meets the patient's needs.

Here are some specific examples of how a patient's cultural beliefs and ethnicity can affect their nursing care plan:

1. Health and illness beliefs: Some cultures have different beliefs about what causes illness and how it should be treated. For example, some cultures believe that illness is caused by spirits or bad luck, while others believe that it is caused by a imbalance in the body. Nurses need to be aware of these beliefs so that they can provide care that is compatible with the patient's beliefs.

2. Communication style: Different cultures have different communication styles. For example, some cultures value direct communication, while others value indirect communication. Nurses need to be aware of the patient's communication style so that they can communicate effectively with the patient.

3. Preferred treatment options: Different cultures have different preferences for treatment options. For example, some cultures prefer traditional medicine, while others prefer Western medicine. Nurses need to be aware of the patient's preferred treatment options so that they can recommend the best course of treatment for the patient.

To know more about communication style here: brainly.com/question/32367654

#SPJ11

There is no exact time frame for how long a person with T2DM can go without medication before developing CKD stage 5 or any kidney issues.

The duration of the development of kidney disease is subject to multiple factors. Maintaining healthy blood sugar and blood pressure levels, adopting a healthy lifestyle, quitting smoking, and following a well-balanced diet can help to reduce or delay the risk of kidney disease in people with T2DM.

Therefore, it's highly recommended to take medication prescribed by the doctor, adhere to a healthy lifestyle, and get regular check-ups to monitor and detect any signs of kidney damage at an early stage, such as urine tests, kidney function tests, and blood tests. It's best to talk to a doctor or healthcare provider for personalized guidance and advice on how to manage T2DM and reduce the risk of kidney disease.

Learn more about kidney disease here:

https://brainly.com/question/3645671

#SPJ11

Electronic Health Records, Telemedicine, Pager and Texting and Email most common ways to use electronic technology in professional communication.

In a healthcare setting, medical assistants use electronic technology in professional communication in various ways. Some of the most common ways include the following:

Learn more about Electronic Health Records:

https://brainly.com/question/24191949

#SPJ11